Hi Avangi,
To me, grammarians always have their way, trying to make thing clear (or confusing to some). What do you think of the following quoted text regarding
's?
"
Some linguists believe that English possessive
is no longer a case at all, but has become a clitic,
an independent particle which, however, is
always pronounced as part of the preceding word. This is claimed on the basis
of the following sort of example: "The king of Sparta's wife was called Helen." If the
English
-'s were a genitive case mark, then the wife would belong to Sparta; but the
-'s attaches not to the word
Sparta, but to the entire phrase
the king of Sparta." - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genitive_case