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Teo

#179297 Thu, 05 Jan 06 11:55 AM

No government should be arming terrorists.

Which does should mean in the above sentence, be likely to or ought to?

Joined on Tue, Sep 28 2004

Taiwan

Contributing Member (1,612)

Thank you very much for your reply.

Mister Micawber

#179315 Thu, 05 Jan 06 12:57 PM

Ought to, I presume. Without context, that is the expected comment.

Joined on Wed, Aug 4 2004

Yokohama

Veteran Member (21,223)

'The question is,' said Humpty Dumpty, 'which is to be master-- that's all.'

Teo

#179325 Thu, 05 Jan 06 01:13 PM

What's the difference in meaning between the following two sentences?

1. No government should be arming terrorists.

2. No government should arm terrorists.

Mister Micawber

#179330 Thu, 05 Jan 06 01:28 PM

Out of context? Probably:

1-- be likely to at the moment, or ought to at the moment or with increased concern
2-- ought to, generally

Teo

#180212 Sun, 08 Jan 06 09:50 AM

Mister Micawber wrote:

Ought to, I presume. Without context, that is the expected comment.

The sentence in question is quoted from Macmillan English Dictionary for Advanced Learners of American English (2002), so there is no context.

Teo

#180213 Sun, 08 Jan 06 09:53 AM