The "so far" seems like a hedge.  That is, you're not prepared to say how long this will continue.  The continuous tense seems to strengthen this uncertainty.  "He has  been doing well" can easily slip to "he had  been doing well."

Newguest

“1. So far, he's been faring well.

2. So far, he is faring well.

So the first one just means that he's been doing well for quite some time, whereas the 2nd one says that he's probably faring well only now and it may change soon? ”

a.  My sense is that 1. describes a longer period of faring well than does 2.

b.  2. gives us the latest news.  Perhaps he had an accident or a heart attack only a day ago.  We're hopeful, but may not yet be speculating on the long term consequences.

c.  It's actually 1. that seems to me to question his future.  We've had a longer period to appraise his condition.

"So far, he's been faring well   -   but,"  We're waiting for the other shoe to drop   -   waiting for the punch line.

d.  This is just my take on how your two examples might suggest different scenarios.  As you say, maybe it depends on context.  The speaker could intend both to have the same meaning.

 Rgdz, - A.

Newguest

“

1. So far, he's been faring well.

2. So far, he is faring well.

”

The first example, with its present perfect tense, takes in the idea of a span of time that is regarded by the speaker as having begun earlier.  The second example takes in the idea of a span of time that is regarded by the speaker as belonging entirely to the present, without reference to any earlier time.  The consequence of these facts is that the first one seems to involve a longer span of time.  The difference can be quite small in the real-world situation, so at times the difference between the two statements is practically negligible.

CJ