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Latest post Wed, Oct 26 2005 12:00 PM by Chompipe. 5 replies.
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Chompipe  +  151351 Tue, 25 Oct 05 01:59 AM
Hi everyone,

Can anyone explain to me why the following uses present perfect in one instance and past simple in the second half of the sentence.

I've just read the message and thought I should reply.

I understand why the first half is in present perfect, but why is the second half past simple?

I've just read ... (present perfect often used with "just", unspecified reference to time of a recent action)

am I correct to assume that

... and thought I should reply. (process of thinking "thought" is a completed action in the past?)



---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Start edit: I've been thinking, could

"I have just read the message and thought I should reply."

be a short form of

"I have just read the message and have thought I should reply."?

Stop edit
---------------------------------------------------------------------------


Thanks in advance everyone,

chompipe



Joined on Thu, Aug 25 2005
New Member 18
CalifJim  +  151361 Tue, 25 Oct 05 02:40 AM
While it's true that, theoretically, the "I've" may be the element assumed to be retained in the second clause, I think your first impulse to say that the second clause is in the simple past is closer to the truth.
Tenses are mixed quite often.  There is not always a satisfying explanation for every possible combination in every possible context.  Sometimes people just change their point of view in the middle of an utterance.

I would have said, "I just ... and thought ..."  (No present perfect at all.)

CJ

Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004
California
Veteran Member 22,465
"There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche
Chompipe  +  151364 Tue, 25 Oct 05 02:54 AM
Thanks a lot CalifJim,

Your response was really insightful, I see it really depends on the context and how the meaning of the sentence is conveyed.

I've noticed that speakers of British English are very keen on differentiating between present perfect and past simple whereas speakers of American English simply tend to use past simple.

So, which is better, American or British English?  Smile [:)]

Clive  +  151384 Tue, 25 Oct 05 04:06 AM

Hi,

I'd just like to add a couple of comments.

First, So, which is better, American or British English?  Canadian English, of course. We have the best of both worlds.

Secondly, as a very big generalization, I'd say that once native speakers have established a 'temporal point of view' by using a special tense, they tend to go back to simpler tenses for additional comments in that same perspective.

For example, John walked into the interview room. That morning he had woken up early. He shaved carefully, he put on his best suit and he reviewed his notes. Michael Swan discusses this simplification of tenses in his Practical English usage (Section 595 in my 1994 edition), although his focus is on subordinate clauses.

Best wishes, Clive


 

Joined on Thu, Oct 28 2004
Canada
Veteran Member 29,676
El tango argentino es un pensamiento triste que se puede bailar (The tango argentino is a sad thought which can be danced) Enrique Santos Discépolo
CalifJim  +  151430 Tue, 25 Oct 05 05:53 AM
So, which is better, American or British English?


Whichever one is being spoken by everyone around you where you live is the best.
Or, if you are not living in an English speaking country, the one you are most likely to travel to should be your cue.

CJ

Chompipe, 4 yr 32 days ago
Thanks a lot for your explanations CalifJim and Clive.




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