tell to someone

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Mr-Taciturn  #325340  Tue, 06 Feb 07 10:59 PM
 Inchoateknowledge wrote:

''Stories to tell to children''  =  stories (to tell = infinitive clause modifying 'stories') to children

stories to children

'to' does not hinge on the verb tell

I really appreciate this approach. That's the point I think ,too

Thanks Mr Incho.

  
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Mr-Taciturn  #325342  Tue, 06 Feb 07 11:01 PM
 Inchoateknowledge wrote:

''Stories to tell to children''  =  stories (to tell = infinitive clause modifying 'stories') to children

stories to children

'to' does not hinge on the verb tell

Then, we can say  '' Stories (to tell) for children''  can't we?

  
Inchoateknowledge  #325343  Tue, 06 Feb 07 11:01 PM
I have taught something new not only you but to me Wink [;)]
  
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MrPedantic  #325344  Tue, 06 Feb 07 11:01 PM

Hello MrT

1. Tolkien used to make up his own stories to tell to his children.

2. Tolkien used to make up his own stories to tell his children.

Both are fine.

You can "tell someone stories" or "tell stories to someone". If the indirect object (here, "someone") follows the verb, it's not usual to use a preposition with "someone"; but if the direct object (or rather, cognate object, in this example) follows the verb, you do need a preposition with "someone".

Similarly, you can say "stories to tell someone" or "stories to tell to someone". I don't find much difference between the two versions; except that perhaps the version with "to" has a greater directional sense (i.e. the "to" emphasises the story-telling relationship).

All the best,

MrP

  
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Inchoateknowledge  #325345  Tue, 06 Feb 07 11:02 PM
 Mr-Taciturn wrote:
 Inchoateknowledge wrote:

''Stories to tell to children''  =  stories (to tell = infinitive clause modifying 'stories') to children

stories to children

'to' does not hinge on the verb tell

Then, we can say  '' Stories (to tell) for children''  can't we?

I do not see anything that forbids such usage

  
Sashasaski  #325346  Tue, 06 Feb 07 11:04 PM
Sorry if it wasn't clear, I just wanted to say tell is not the main verb on this sentence. Of course, tell is a verb.

I just wanted to make my point of not thinking "tell" and "to" as a set.

As indicated in the book title, "Stories to tell" becomes one big noun as a set in the sentence.. It is like "Games to play" or "Things to do"

"to his childrren" can be replaced by "for his children" just as easily.
  
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Inchoateknowledge  #325350  Tue, 06 Feb 07 11:11 PM

1. Tolkien used to make up his own stories (to tell) to his children. -- the underlined part is a prep phrase that hinges on 'stories'

2. Tolkien used to make up his own stories to tell his children.-- the underlined part is the reason clause

  
Mr-Taciturn  #325351  Tue, 06 Feb 07 11:11 PM
 MrPedantic wrote:

Hello MrT

1. Tolkien used to make up his own stories to tell to his children.

2. Tolkien used to make up his own stories to tell his children.

Both are fine.

You can "tell someone stories" or "tell stories to someone". If the indirect object (here, "someone") follows the verb, it's not usual to use a preposition with "someone"; but if the direct object (or rather, cognate object, in this example) follows the verb, you do need a preposition with "someone".

Similarly, you can say "stories to tell someone" or "stories to tell to someone". I don't find much difference between the two versions; except that perhaps the version with "to" has a greater directional sense (i.e. the "to" emphasises the story-telling relationship).

All the best,

MrP

Thanks Mr Pedantic ,but

What do you think of Mr Incha's explanation?  It sounds good to me.

  
Inchoateknowledge  #325352  Tue, 06 Feb 07 11:12 PM

"What do you think of Mr Incha's explanation?  It sounds good to me."

1. Tolkien used to make up his own stories (to tell) to his children. -- the underlined part is a prep phrase that hinges on 'stories'

2. Tolkien used to make up his own stories to tell his children.-- the underlined part is a reason clause

  
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