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Teo  #210208  Tue, 28 Mar 06 04:37 AM

Be can be used with the past participle of certain intransitive verbs to form an archaic perfect tense [Christ is risen].

Webster's New World Dictionary, Student Edition, 1981

  
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Goodman  #210209  Tue, 28 Mar 06 04:37 AM

 Has it occurred to you that I am the only one who still have a little stubbornness left in me to keep this pointless exchange going?   What you are saying is that you are the only person on this forum intellectual enough to appreciate English from times past?   Soon you will be all alone.

  
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paco2004  #210267  Tue, 28 Mar 06 07:50 AM
 Teo wrote:

Be can be used with the past participle of certain intransitive verbs to form an archaic perfect tense [Christ is risen].

Webster's New World Dictionary, Student Edition, 1981

Hi Teo

Thanks for the info.

paco
  
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Goodman  #210277  Tue, 28 Mar 06 08:15 AM

Teo,

You have to be careful. Some verbs can be used in their part participle form as participle adjectives and some can't. In your example "Christ is risen" is fine. Most of us on this forum know how the past participles work and behave without relying on googling and dictionary. That's said, the heavy discussion is around "is arrived". In modern English, this construct is not well-accepted. That's my 2 cents for you.

  
Anonymous  #210280  Tue, 28 Mar 06 08:21 AM
 Goodman wrote:

 Has it occurred to you that I am the only one who still have a little stubbornness left in me to keep this pointless exchange going?   What you are saying is that you are the only person on this forum intellectual enough to appreciate English from times past?   Soon you will be all alone.

Hi,

Is it "Still have" or "Still has"?  Thank your anser.

  
rishonly  #210281  Tue, 28 Mar 06 08:30 AM
 Goodman wrote:

 Most of us on this forum know how the past participles work and behave without relying on googling and dictionary. 

Goodman,

Sorry, I am kind of lost on this point now and curious to understand your notion.

  
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nona the brit  #210283  Tue, 28 Mar 06 08:42 AM

(my side of moderator's public squabble deleted to keep the peace. nona)

  
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rishonly  #210287  Tue, 28 Mar 06 09:02 AM
 Nona The Brit wrote:

Yes Paco I am perfectly aware that 200 years ago the construction 'is arrived' was acceptable. So what? People come here to learn to use modern English (unless they point out otherwise) and I think you enjoy deliberately confusing things in this way as you have done it before. If you wish to talk about 200 year old useages then you should point that out and not give all the learners the incorrect information that it is still currently in use.

Anyway why stick at 200 years ago? Why don't you start telling everyone to start using 14th century English in their everyday activities, or 9th century, or 5th century? And do so of course without pointing out that the useages and words you are discussing are now obsolete. Wouldn't it be fun to have lots of English learners walking around saying things like 'Whan that Aprill with his shoures soote, the droghte of March hath perced to the roote'* when they want to chat about the weather.

 

*Geoffrey Chaucer, first lines of The General Prologue to The Canterbury Tales, 1387.

 

Nona and all,

May I please suggest you to stop this sort of discussion and personal attacks?. We LEARNERS want to learn something from you all , rather than seeing these kinds of shocking and surprising attacks.

  
paco2004  #210306  Tue, 28 Mar 06 10:24 AM

Nona

 Nona The Brit wrote:
Yes Paco I am perfectly aware that 200 years ago the construction 'is arrived' was acceptable. So what?
If you are so, why did you give such a message as below? If you had written in previous post just that "is arrived" is not incorrect but rather an archaic collocation, I would have respected your great knowledge of English and thanked to your comment.
 Nona The Brit wrote:
'They arrived at the decision' not 'they are arrived the decision'. Same thing as not finding 'He is arrived' acceptable.
I wonder if this error stems from a mishearing of He has arrived - this would normally be pronounced He's arrived - which now I'm sitting here saying it does actually sound exactly like 'He is arrived'. You get the same effect with she's (she has) arrived and it's (it has) arrived.  In addition, people seeing it's/he's/she's might be assuming that it is a contraction of is instead of has.


 Nona The Brit wrote:
I think you enjoy deliberately confusing things in this way as you have done it before. If you wish to talk about 200 year old useages then you should point that out and not give all the learners the incorrect information that it is still currently in use.
I am disappointed! Why can't you understand my intention? My first message here was an answer to the question by StephenLai as below.
 StephenLai wrote:
In the sentence, ...they were prepared to impose..., they indicates the members of Congress, right?
Then, the members of Congress should prepare to impose, not were prepared to impose.
It shouldn't be passive. Why does the sentense go this way?
I took StephenLai wanted to know why an intransitive verb can take a form like a passive voice and still the sense is like an active voice. To such a question, I thought, it would be better to explain the historical construct of "perfect tense with 'be' as the auxiliary".

Please know we ESL students are often agonized by English collocations that cannot be explained by current grammar rules. You native speakers might say "That usage is exceptional, just memorize it". But we ESL students (at least me) can hardly memorize exceptions without knowing why such exceptions occur. I suppose you native speakers, who unconsciously have acquired such exceptional collocations, never understand this difficult situation of ESL students.

paco

  
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