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Latest post Wed, Oct 14 2009 10:24 AM by Ivanhr. 4 replies.
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pleasehelp  +  941705 Wed, 14 Oct 09 09:44 AM
He doesn't have any left. 


But shouldn't it be has instead of have since the sentence is singular?  I know it sounds very wrong with has but please explain why is it have.

Joined on Sun, Sep 20 2009
Regular Member 614
Ivanhr  +  941729 Wed, 14 Oct 09 10:09 AM

 You really should review how to use verbs correctly.

I don't have

You don't have

He/she doesn't have (but he/she has). Note that with he/she (third person singular) in negative sentences don't is changed to doesn't so have (and any other verb) is left unchanged.

Joined on Fri, Oct 2 2009
Full Member 176
dimsumexpress  +  941731 Wed, 14 Oct 09 10:13 AM
Pleasehelp,

I replied your other posts regarding the use of modals. Again, Whenever you see the following modals /helping verbs used, even in their negative form, you will find the adjacent verb remain in its basic form.  i.e. He must understand the consequences.

Does / do/ did/ should/ shall/ may/ might/ will/ would/ can /could /must etc..

This is the hard rule.  So for your question: But shouldn't it be has instead of have since the sentence is singular?

The answer is "no" because "doesn't" already satisfied the 3rd person singular requirement.

Joined on Mon, Oct 12 2009
Full Member 273
pleasehelp  +  941732 Wed, 14 Oct 09 10:16 AM
Why is have left unchanged?  He, she, it is still requires the singular verb which is doesn't.

Ivanhr  +  941741 Wed, 14 Oct 09 10:24 AM
because "doesn't" already satisfied the 3rd person singular requirement (dimsum already answered)
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