The tenseless modals verbs of English

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
   Share on Facebook  
MrPedantic  #73375  Fri, 11 Feb 05 07:55 AM
Now I am troubled, JT. As I see it, your method proves that the present tense of ordinary verbs is also tenseless.

If this is the case, we are no longer justified in treating modal verbs as exceptions. We may legitimately proceed with a discussion of the general rule.

MrP
  
Top 10 Contributor
Joined on Wed, Oct 13 2004
Veteran Member (12,168)
Proficient SpeakerSystemAdministrator
...opella forensis / adducit febris...
CalifJim  #73386  Fri, 11 Feb 05 08:41 AM
I agree. It seems to lead to the idea that any form which can be used for more than just an indicator of time - and the present and past forms qualify for membership in this category - should be considered tenseless. So English doesn't have tense? Only modality?

Come to think of it, I recall reading something by Lyons some years ago that claimed tense was a modality.

Hmmm.

CJ
  
Top 10 Contributor
Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004
California
Veteran Member (17,794)
ModeratorProficient Speaker
"There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche
MrPedantic  #73388  Fri, 11 Feb 05 09:03 AM
If Lyons is right...and tense is modality...we can then redefine modal verbs as – verbs with tenses?

That would be rather radical.

What do you think, JT?

MrP
  
just the truth  #73390  Fri, 11 Feb 05 09:14 AM
I think Mr P, that your pedantry, like all pedantry, is designed to obscure rather than enlighten. Your inability to focus is really quite astonishing.
  
Top 100 Contributor
Joined on Mon, Dec 27 2004
Regular Member (849)
David  #73413  Fri, 11 Feb 05 02:45 PM
Talk about Theologians splitting hairs. Enjoying yourself JTT?
  
Top 150 Contributor
Joined on Sat, Mar 8 2003
Regular Member (668)
ModeratorTeachers
just the truth  #73498  Sat, 12 Feb 05 02:55 AM
Since this is the Linguistic Discussion Forum, David, I think it would help if you would expand on your comments in order to showed how they are relevant to the topic of this thread.
  
CalifJim  #73536  Sat, 12 Feb 05 09:22 AM
Supposing for the sake of argument that "can", "would", "might", "may", "will", "should", "could", ... are all tenseless, what then do we call the relationship between "can" and "could", between "will" and "would", if we think there is any whatsoever?

Because of the opening supposition, we cannot say that the relationship is one of tense.

But we can say that there is NO relationship whatsoever, that "can" and "could" are as different as "consider" and "name", i.e., just another word in the same general category:

I considered him clever.
They named him leader.

Or as different as "frog" and "sun".

I watched the frog jump.
I watched the sun rise.

Supposing we also reject the idea that there is NO relationship. Suppose we say that surely the following pairs show a relationship between "will" and "would", for example, which is a closer relationship that that which obtains between "frog" and "sun".

Will you fix my TV if I pay you?
Would you fix my TV if I paid you?

I'm saying I'll do it.
I was saying I'd do it.

I think I will drop in and see her.
I thought I would drop in and see her.

Suppose we say that the relationship just shown above is a closer one than obtains between "will" and "could", for example. That is, we agree that while "can", "would", "may" ... are all tenseless (first supposition above), the relationship between "will" and "would" is a closer relationship than that between "will" and "could", or between "will" and "may", etc.

Further suppose that we regard the fact that "will" and "would" both begin with the same letter ("w") and the fact that "can" and "could" and that "shall" and "should", etc. begin with the same letter absolutely irrelevant to the relationship. In other words, we decide to reject the initial letter of these words as trivial in the relationship. We decide that the relationship we seek is something deeper than that, something to do with the meanings, not the appearance of the words orthographically.

To summarize, we have agreed that the relationship we want to describe between "can" and "could", "shall" and "should", etc. is not one of tense, and not one of orthography, but that there IS some relationship there to be described, that these 'modals' do not form a set of totally independent unrelated words.

What then is the proper description of the relationship that exists for pairs like those already cited above for "will" and "would" and like those shown below?

Tom can easily run ten miles these days.
Tom could easily run ten miles in those days.
?Tom could easily run ten miles these days.
*Tom can easily run ten miles in those days.

As time passes, one fact is becoming obvious. He will always be like that. Unfortunely, he will never walk again.
As time passed, one fact became obvious. He would always be like that. Unfortunately, he would never walk again.

Recall that by supposition we have agreed that the relationship between "can" and "could" is not one of tense. Likewise for "will" and "would", because none of these words are tensed.

So what is the proper description of the relationship shown? Tongue Tied [:S]
  
just the truth  #73556  Sat, 12 Feb 05 12:51 PM
Supposing for the sake of argument that "can", "would", "might", "may", "will", "should", "could", ... are all tenseless, what then do we call the relationship between "can" and "could", between "will" and "would", if we think there is any whatsoever?

Because of the opening supposition, we cannot say that the relationship is one of tense.

But we can say that there is NO relationship whatsoever, that "can" and "could" are as different as "consider" and "name", i.e., just another word in the same general category:


We don't have to suppose anything, Jim. The facts clearly point to modals being tenseless. But there is no need to deny what is true about the modals.

There are obvious connections between the modal pairs. In some modal pairings the connection has been weakened because of shifts in meaning. In other pairings, connections are so strong that it is easy to think that they have present and past forms but a closer look reveals that they don't.

You have obviously noticed [as I'm sure have others] that 'will/would' and 'can/could' exhibit the strongest connections. Let's leave those out for the time being, if y'all wouldn't mind.

>>>>>>>>>>>>>>

The Grammar Book:

... we describe modals as tenseless auxiliairies ... . However, we acknowledge that modals do derive historically from ordinary verb forms inflected for either present or past tense because this historically-based relationship still has some semantic implications.


I have purposefully taken this a step at a time for a number of reasons. Most importantly, this is not something that is easy even for ENLs to grasp and since there are likely ESLs following this, taking it step by step is, to my mind the best course of action.

I don't want to prejudge but there don't seem to be many takers offering up examples of 'might' as a past tense of 'may'.

Should/Shall we leave it a day or two more to give anyone who wants to posts some examples a chance before we move on to shall/should?
  
CalifJim  #73570  Sat, 12 Feb 05 05:35 PM
JT,

Yes, it's obvious that the relationship we're talking about is stronger for "can" / "could" and "will" / "would". But what I'm asking for is the word, the term, the terminology which describes this relationship -- supposing, in agreement with you, that "tense" is NOT the proper term for describing this relationship.

CJ
  
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
AddThis Feed Button RSS Feed: ESL Linguistics Discussion Forum
© 2008 MediaCET Ltd.
Terms and Conditions & Terms of Service