The tenseless modals verbs of English

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MrPedantic  #74507  Thu, 17 Feb 05 01:54 AM
1. 2003 - GWB: The Iraqis are going to hold elections in Iraq in January 2005.

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Mr P: In #1, GWB situates the intention in the present.

JTT: No it doesn't Mr P. GWB's speech clearly situates the intention in the future, "January 2005" to be exact. You have mistaken the time of speaking and the effect of that speech.

When I say 'I intend to learn Japanese', my intention is situated in the present: 'at this moment, my intention is to learn Japanese'.

The thing intended is situated in the future.

MrP
  
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...opella forensis / adducit febris...
MrPedantic  #74509  Thu, 17 Feb 05 02:09 AM
1. A report of the identical situation can be made with quotations [direct report]. How can a direct report be about a future action but an indirect report be about a past action?


1. I may learn Japanese.
2. I said I might learn Japanese.
3. I said: 'I may learn Japanese'.

#1: Today, Tuesday, I express the possibility of learning Japanese. The possibility starts now. It therefore starts in the present.

#2: On Wednesday, I tell CJ what I said on Tuesday. The possibility started yesterday. It therefore started in the past.

On Thursday, Casi says, I hear you've told CJ you're planning to learn Chinese. To which I reply: #3.

With #3, 'I said' situates the saying in the past, where the possibility started. But 'I may' is a piece of Tuesday, preserved in speech marks. It is therefore present, because that's what it was on Tuesday.

MrP
  
MrPedantic  #74652  Thu, 17 Feb 05 05:39 PM
JTT: These tangents, Mr P and the nonsense! Everyone, including you, knows that "be going to" is a structure used in English to describe a future event. GWB knows because the Iraq election was planned ahead of time. An election doesn't just spontaneously happen one day!

Your comment proves my point. GWB uses 'are going to' here with a sense of 'intention': of 'something planned'.

('To be going to' can be used with or without a sense of intent. Your GWB example shows 'intent'; your 'baby' and 'rain' examples, non-intent.)

MrP
  
just the truth  #74727  Fri, 18 Feb 05 01:16 AM
#2: On Wednesday, I tell CJ what I said on Tuesday. The possibility started yesterday. It therefore started in the past.

>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>

Two major problems with your theory, Mr P.

1. "The possibility started yesterday. It therefore started in the past."

And what it started with was a "may" designating a small to a good chance that Mr P will study Japanese. How it's subsequently reported makes no difference. The intent WAS and still is a "may".

2. "The possibility started yesterday. It therefore started in the past."

But it has not come to fruition. It can have no past tense because nothing has past, ie. nothing has finished. Opinions don't have pasts because they are only opinions. The only things that can be past are actual results flowing from an expressed opinon or not flowing from an expressed opinion; Mr P is studying Japanese OR Mr P is not studying Japanese.
[the consideration re: studying has come to or not come to fruition]

You are still seriously confused or you are being wantonly obtuse in your misguided attempts to defend sad old prescriptions. You can find no defence for your position in either the language or in knowledgeable language sources.

The number of prescriptive sources you've supplied to defend your points illustrates just how devoid they are of anything substantive. You haven't even collected examples from PG sources, because like the Commnet site, it would show how badly it has been described. This stands as yet another fine example of how badly prescriptive grammar has gotten it wrong.


Now shall/should. The connection between these two modals has widened even more so than for may/might. They share only the most tenuous connections, mostly for things like old legal
documents, etc.

, like the other modals is never used as a past tense without 'have +PP'. Same for ; it needs 'have + PP' to operate in the past. It's really misleading to describe verbs which freely move through all tenses as past & present tense. Clearly they are tenseless. They carry modal meaning.


  
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MrPedantic  #74728  Fri, 18 Feb 05 01:20 AM
4. 'Although he might arrive that night, the door was locked; and while Mme Boullemier kept the keys at her belt, as Aurélia knew well, it might never be opened.'

JTT: 'He' hasn't arrived; this is speculation on him doing so. The second 'might', same thing. Aurelia KNEW Mme Boullemier well; IF 'he' arrived, no matter how hard he begged, the door might never again be opened to him.

An imaginative effort, JT. But now try this:

'Although he may arrive that night, the door was locked; and while Mme Boullemier kept the keys at her belt, as Aurélia knew well, it may never be opened.'

You say that 'may' and 'might' don't carry tense. If that's the case, why do we experience incongruity, as soon as we exchange one for the other? Where does that incongruity reside?

To put it another way: explain why we can't substitute 'may' for 'might' in this sentence.

MrP

(By the way, you have misinterpreted the situation here. The 1st 'might' expresses possibility, not speculation. As it happens, Aurélia doesn't know Mme Boullemier well at all. But she knows that the door can't be unlocked without the key; and the keys are always on Mme B's belt. The 2nd 'might' also relates to possibility. There is of course no question of 'begging at the door'.)
  
MrPedantic  #74733  Fri, 18 Feb 05 01:54 AM
JTT:
"The possibility started yesterday. It therefore started in the past."
But it has not come to fruition. It can have no past tense because nothing has past, ie. nothing has finished.

How curious. A possibility has no past? Maybe I misremembered the conversation with Casi:

Casi: I hear you told CJ you're planning to learn Chinese.
MrP: I said that I might learn Japanese. But now I've switched to Ashanti.

The possibility is now firmly in the past. It's over. It existed between Tuesday morning and Wednesday evening. In fact, I remember it vividly. And if you can remember something – it's in the past.

If feelings and opinions didn't have pasts, how would we remember what we thought last week? And if possibilities didn't exist, why would we need modal verbs to express them?


As for this:

You are still seriously confused or you are being wantonly obtuse in your misguided attempts to defend sad old prescriptions. You can find no defence for your position in either the language or in knowledgeable language sources. The number of prescriptive sources you've supplied to defend your points illustrates just how devoid they are of anything substantive.

Why would I need books to tell me how to speak?

MrP
  
just the truth  #74777  Fri, 18 Feb 05 05:42 AM
Mr P:
Why would I need books to tell me how to speak?

>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>

That's the thing, MrP, *ENLs [unknown term] don't need prescriptions to tell them how to speak. We all have the REAL rules inside.

You are however, in dire need of some books that will help you to describe how language works.
  
MrPedantic  #74805  Fri, 18 Feb 05 07:47 AM
I'm sure you're right, JT.

But why not answer the questions I've put to you?

MrP

  
CalifJim  #74806  Fri, 18 Feb 05 07:51 AM
Am I the only one who finds the presuppositions within these statements contradictory?

It's really misleading to describe verbs which freely move through all tenses as past & present tense. Clearly they are tenseless.


It seems to say that these verbs can occur in any tense; therefore they do not have any tense. Maybe "of indeterminate tense" is a better way of stating it???

CJ
  
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