Believer wrote: |
| In regard to No.2, I can almost swear that
I have heard some English professionals saying that there is an
implicit word "to" there and whenever you hear the sentences
without it, just remember it is to be included for a sentence to be
a correct sentence. |
|
While I recognize that some
people will make this claim, I contend that it is counter productive to
rely on the implicit existence of the word to.
The indirect object is not native to Indo-European languages. In the
simplest scenario of their usage, these nouns had to be marked because
word order alone
was insufficient to identify the function of such nouns within the
clause. With
the evolution of English to the use of prepositions, the indirect
object marker evolved in two distinct manners. When the direct object
follows
the verb and the indirect object is last, the earlier usage, the
indirect object must be
marked with a preposition, and to was selected for this purpose. When
the indirect object follows the verb and the direct object is last,
the newer usage, word order alone is sufficient to mark the function of
the indirect
object and no preposition is required.
I consider that it is not useful to get hung up on an arbitrary marker of the indirect object,
the preposition to, and to believe that without its presence we must somehow
devolve to the recognition that it must be there because it is required
under other conditions.