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Latest post Wed, May 13 2009 5:15 AM by CalifJim. 1 replies.
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Infinik  +  727541 Wed, 13 May 09 02:36 AM
Dear the grammar savvy:

 

 We know this is wrong:

 

I have the same book as yours.

 

But can anyone offer explanations why it is grammatically incorrect? Is it really that wrong?

What part of speech is "as"? Is it a relative pronoun? What about:

 

Mine is the same as yours.

 

Using the subject/object-case pronoun analysis, one can explain:

 

I like her as much as he [likes her].

I like her as much as [I like] him.

 

But can that analysis be applied to the sentence "I have the same book as yours"?

 

i

Joined on Mon, Jan 14 2008
Full Member 115
CalifJim  +  727677 Wed, 13 May 09 05:15 AM
Infinik

Using the subject/object-case pronoun analysis, one can explain:


I like her as much as he [likes her].

I like her as much as [I like] him.


No, because yours (and all other such pronouns) does not change from one case to another.


Yours is better.  (subject)

Henry likes yours. (object)


Infinik
“why it is grammatically incorrect?”
It means something absurd.

Compare:


My cats have the same weight as you.

= My cats have the same weight as the weight that you have.

= Both my cats and you weigh the same.


My cats have the same weight as yours.

= My cats have the same weight as the weight that your cats have.

= Both my cats and your cats weigh the same.


Thus:

I have the same book as yours.

= I have the same book as the book that your book has.


I have the same book as you.

= I have the same book as the book that you have.


I would not call as a relative pronoun.  As far as I know it's a comparative conjunction, though it often has the appearance of a preposition.


CJ

Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004
California
Veteran Member 22,128
"There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche
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