They had me do

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Guest  #68992  Fri, 21 Jan 05 08:37 AM
Does anybody know what is the rule governing this sentence?
Why it is not "they had me to do" but "they had me do"?
  
Casi  #69007  Fri, 21 Jan 05 10:19 AM
In that context "had" functions as a causative verb. As a causative verb, "had" expresses:

a) I used a person to do something for me.
EX: I had Max WASH the car. (I had someone DO something)

b) I had something done by someone else.
EX: I had the car WASHED. (I had something DONE)

Some causative verbs take DO, whereas others take the infinitive TO DO. The verb "help" takes both. You have to memorize them, sorry.

let x DO y
make x DO y

allow x TO DO y
permit x TO DO y
force x TO DO y

help x DO y
help x TO DO y
  
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Mister Micawber  #69013  Fri, 21 Jan 05 10:47 AM

As additional information, there seem to be only three of the so-called 'coercive' verbs: 'Let', 'make' and 'have', which take the bare infinitive (no 'to') complement. A small set of common verbs that is easy to memorize!


  
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