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This question is Not Answered
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Anonymous
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521997
Mon, 02 Jun 08 11:25 AM
Hi,
The word 'vanished' is known to me as intransitive which means it takes no object. Then, a look at a dictionary seems to tell otherwise: it seemed to be noted as transitive with the meaning "to cause to disappear".
Then, I saw a sentence that seemed to have this part:
... is vanished
Then, it got me thinking how that could be: a intransitive isn't supposed to have a passive. Is the transitive definition at play here? How would you know?
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Marius Hancu
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522012
Mon, 02 Jun 08 12:52 PM
it's both, get a better dictionary, such as this one ($30/year): -- transitive verb : to cause to disappear <you can vanish the coin completely -- Jean Hugard> http://unabridged.merriam-webster.com ---
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Mr Wordy
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522015
Mon, 02 Jun 08 12:56 PM
To me (British English), "vanish" as a transitive verb is borderline, and is appropriate in only in very casual or jokey usage. I'm not sure how accepted it is in AmE.
Therefore, to me, "is vanished" looks like a mistake for "has vanished". If I was certain it wasn't a mistake then I would understand it as a passive form of transitive "vanish", which might, depending on context, merge into an adjectival use of the past participle of transitive "vanish". I don't see any other interpretation.
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Tue, May 27 2008
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2,359
Native British English speaker
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Mr Wordy
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522022
Mon, 02 Jun 08 01:25 PM
Hmm. I see that the transitive meaning is listed in Chambers (a well respected British dictionary), with no qualifications. So obviously some British English speakers think it's unexceptionable... just not this one!
I'd be interested to hear what others have to say.
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Grammar Geek
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522023
Mon, 02 Jun 08 01:28 PM
Without wanting to get into a "it's in the dictionary so it must be used" discussion, I just want to add that the transitive sense is very unfamiliar to me. It makes me think of a mother feeding her child: "Look, you made it all gone!"
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Barbara, who answers in American English. My housekeeping skills attest to the truth of the second law of thermodynamics: Left to themselves, things get more and more random!
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Marius Hancu,
1 yr 174 days ago
>Therefore, to me, "is vanished" looks like a mistake for "has vanished". Right, or dialect?
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Mr Wordy
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522051
Mon, 02 Jun 08 02:42 PM
Actually, I thought of one place where I wouldn't be surprised to encounter "is vanished": in attempted recreations of archaic dialogue.
Scene: mediaeval castle
Knight to servant: Forsooth! Fetch me my drinking goblet, thou varmint!
(Servant returns empty-handed)
Servant: Sire! It is vanished!
(Authenticity not guaranteed!)
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Old Man Gordon
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522060
Mon, 02 Jun 08 03:02 PM
Mr. Wordy-
Thou art on the mark.
From German, we would have taken "Es ist verschwunden." to make thine ancient applicable example.
I'm also unfamiliar with the transitive usage, and would interpret it "it is vanished" as a mistake or an invented adjective rather than a passive verb.
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Goodman
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522088
Mon, 02 Jun 08 05:00 PM
Although it’s rare to see intransitive usage with “vanished” as it’s deemed ungrammatical, it certainly is interesting to see 45,000 entries of such use. Granted, some of these entries might not be even be considered suitable as references. Thinking out loud, I see the usage “the rainbow was vanished behind the clouds…” is acceptable as “vanished” is being used as a past participle adjective, much like “ all hopes are lost ”, or “he was long gone..”. If something causes another to vanish, I think it’s logical that “the rainbow was vanished behind the clouds…” be considered as correct usage. That’s my take.
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3,816
The name says it all!
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