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Rex  #352860  Thu, 19 Apr 07 11:25 AM

Cool Breeze has written the following:

A. The present perfect in the passive:
    A new house has been built.
    Two new houses have been built.
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B. The perfect infinitive in the passive:
    The perfect infinitive is usually used with a defective auxiliary (also known as a modal auxiliary). The defective auxiliaries are can,
    could; will, would; shall, should; may, might; must
and ought. With all of these, it is theoretically possible to have the passive     auxuliary (to be) in the perfect infinitive (to have been). The to-particle is used only with ought.  
    Examples:
A new house may have been built.
    A new house should have been built.
    A new house must have been built.
    A new house will have been built by the end of the year.
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The following is my question.
The sentence ' A new house will have been built by the end of the year' is a future perfct sentence. What has it to do with the perfect infinitive?

I will have learnt a lot about the perfect infinitive by the end of this month. This is a correct future perfect sentence like the sentence in question.
  
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