milky  +  274686 Sat, 30 Sep 06 10:26 PM Facchinetti has said that "just because two modals are interchangeable in a specific context does not mean that they are strictly equivalent. This means that what difference there is between them does not affect the meaning of the utterance to the point that it means something altogether different and may therefore cause misunderstanding". Modality in Contemporary English, pg 82. milky Joined on Thu, Jan 15 2004 Senior Member 3,149 Hume said that if we had perfect or complete descriptive knowledge of reality, we could not, by reasoning, derive a single valid "ought". Modals

	CalifJim  +  275210 Mon, 02 Oct 06 08:19 AM I suppose she [might/could] be right. CJ CalifJim Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004 California Veteran Member 22,128 "There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche