One grammar books tells me that in some cases the marker of infinitives “to” should be omitted, and another grammar book tells me that in these cases the marker of infinitives “to” can be omitted. I noticed that there is a difference between these two statements, which is between “should be” and “can be”. So I am wondering which of the two sentences in each following pair is wrong? Why? If both cases are acceptable, what are the differences?1. Did you hear him go out?
Did you hear him to go out?
2. I would have him wait for me.
I would have him to wait for me.
3. Last night I did nothing but watch TV.
Last night I did nothing but to watch TV.
4. All we can do is go at once.
All we can do is to go at once.
5. I can’t but tell her the truth.
I can’t but to tell her the truth.
6. We had better do it at once.
We had better to do it at once.
7. Why not go out for a walk?
Why not to go out for walk?
8. Why do it that way?
Why to do it that way?
9. I must make do with the old suit.
I must make to do with the old suit.
10. The old man would rather drink tea than drink coffee.
The old man would rather to drink tea that to drink coffee.
Thank you very much!