Why no article here?

1 2
   Share on Facebook  
Ant_222  #533409  Fri, 27 Jun 08 05:29 PM
Hello all!

I was looking up a word in theFreeDictionary and stumbled across the following sentence from Jack London's "White Fang": «The months went by, binding stronger and stronger the covenant between dog and man.»

Why didn't he write "...between _the_ dog...".

Thanks in advance,
Anton

EDIT: Could it be bacause "between dog and man" is descriptive (not restrictive)?
  
Top 75 Contributor
Joined on Sun, May 21 2006
Podolsk, Russia
Contributing Member (1,569)
Clive  #533417  Fri, 27 Jun 08 06:03 PM
Hi,

He's thinking that there is a covenant that exists between all dogs and all men.

Clive

  
Top 10 Contributor
Joined on Thu, Oct 28 2004
Canada
Veteran Member (22,263)
ModeratorTeachers
El tango argentino es un pensamiento triste que se puede bailar (The tango argentino is a sad thought which can be danced) Enrique Santos Discépolo
Ant_222  #533421  Fri, 27 Jun 08 06:13 PM
Thanks, that's interesting!
  
CalifJim  #533446  Fri, 27 Jun 08 06:59 PM
I think I would explain it a little differently.  The reference is to abstractions, not to physical entities.

It's the covenant between dog-nature and man-nature.  (between what-is-dog-essence and what-is-man-essence; between dog-ness and man-ness)

CJ 

  
Top 10 Contributor
Joined on Mon, Aug 2 2004
California
Veteran Member (17,568)
ModeratorProficient Speaker
"There are no facts, only interpretations" - Nietzsche
Ant_222  #533756  Sat, 28 Jun 08 03:14 PM
Thanks for another hint. But I am still thinking and can't fully get it (I thought I would with time...).

It's general dog-ness and general man-ness that London refers to by writing "man" and "dog" without an article. But isn't that very (wolf)dog's dog-ness and the man-ness of cerain men?

I hope I am right in thinking that London writes it that way to emphasize the covenant's being part of "the ancient covenant that the first wolf that came
in from the Wild entered into with man". Otherwise he _could_ have used the definite article, I suppose.

Anton
  
Jackson6612  #553727  Mon, 11 Aug 08 10:32 PM
Ant_222
Hello all!

I was looking up a word in theFreeDictionary and stumbled across the following sentence from Jack London's "White Fang": «The months went by, binding stronger and stronger the covenant between dog and man.»

Why didn't he write "...between _the_ dog...".

Thanks in advance,
Anton

EDIT: Could it be bacause "between dog and man" is descriptive (not restrictive)?


Suppose he wrote between the dog and man, then would it mean that the is associated with both dog and man, i.e ...the covenant between (the) dog and (the) man.

What do you mean by descriptive and restrictive?

Best regards,
JH
  
Top 50 Contributor
Joined on Wed, Dec 27 2006
Senior Member (3,159)
Trusted Users
NOTE: When you reply to my post, please look for mistakes in grammar, syntax or punctuation, and let me know of any suggestions you have. Thank you.
Ant_222  #553738  Mon, 11 Aug 08 10:53 PM
Jackson6612
uppose he wrote between the dog and man, then would it mean that the is associated with both dog and man, i.e ...the covenant between (the) dog and (the) man.

No, I was referring to the placement of "the" before both "dog" and "man"... I am not sure it would be correct to use "the" only before "dog".

Jackson6612
What do you mean by descriptive and restrictive?

Those are standard grammatical terms. Restrictive – something that restricts the meaning of a noun to a single specified object which otherwise would refer to a multitude or a class of objects. Descriptive – something that only describes an object, but does not specify it.

Descriptive: "This is a white car" – we know the color, and it is only a description.

Restrictive "I am the guy that wrote you that letter" – the subordinate clause here identifies the person, so it is restrictive.

  
Jackson6612  #554171  Wed, 13 Aug 08 04:38 AM
Ant_222
Jackson6612
uppose he wrote between the dog and man, then would it mean that the is associated with both dog and man, i.e ...the covenant between (the) dog and (the) man.

No, I was referring to the placement of "the" before both "dog" and "man"... I am not sure it would be correct to use "the" only before "dog".



Example Sentence: I want a mango, pineapple, and strawberry.

I believe in the above sentence article a is associated with all the nouns, mango, pineapple, and strawberry. And same is the case with your sentence where article the only comes before dog but it is associated with both dog and man''. I believe this is the feature of English grammar. What do you say?
  
Cool Breeze  #554212  Wed, 13 Aug 08 08:41 AM
CalifJim

It's the covenant between dog-nature and man-nature.  (between what-is-dog-essence and what-is-man-essence; between dog-ness and man-ness)

 

I agree. We could also say that this is in a way a matter of "opposites" in that people are human, dogs are not. It is normal in English to drop articles with opposites:

from morning till evening, from east to west

CB

  
Top 50 Contributor
Joined on Fri, Apr 7 2006
Helsinki, Finland
Senior Member (2,964)
Proficient SpeakerTrusted Users
The coldest winter I ever spent was a summer in San Francisco.- Mark Twain
1 2
AddThis Feed Button RSS Feed: ESL General English Grammar Questions
© 2008 MediaCET Ltd.
Terms and Conditions & Terms of Service