Pemmican  +  5151 Thu, 21 Aug 03 02:16 AM Hello everyone, this is my first post in this forum and I hope someone can help me. I am not a native English speaker so I hope you will forgive me all the mistakes I certainly will do... Well, actually my question... In my English Grammar book I used to use at school, it was said that there is a "Will-Future-Progressive-Tense" in existance in English, formed like will have been + present participle The only information given to this was that it is rarely used. I'd like to know when this tense is going to be used (context), can anyone of you explain that to me please or give an example? Thank you very much! Pemmican Joined on Thu, Aug 21 2003 Regular Member 569 Wâ mag ich mich nu vinden? wâ mac ich mich nu suochen, wâ? nu bin ich hie und bin ouch dâ und enbin doch weder dâ noch hie. wer wart ouch sus verirret ie? wer wart ie sus... Grammar, Tenses, English Grammar, Future Progressive

	Pemmican  +  5152 Thu, 21 Aug 03 02:18 AM Will-Future "Perfect" Progressive Tense of course, sorry Pemmican

	kitkattail  +  5154 Thu, 21 Aug 03 04:11 AM Used almost exactly like "have been + present participle," except that it's in the future. Example: "By the time you get to work tomorrow, I will have been slaving away for hours." So basically, a future state resulting from an action occurring sometime before it. kitkattail Joined on Tue, Aug 12 2003 Toronto Full Member 400 www.kitkattail.blogspot.com

	moijelesuis  +  5199 Thu, 21 Aug 03 09:59 PM imagine two events taking place... one starting sometime in the FUTURE and continuing on and on, when the second one interrupts it (or at least takes place during the first event). the first event will use the future perfect (often followed by a "quantity" of time); the second in the present (often preceded by the expression "by the time") example: event 1) driving a car event 2) crossing a border i will have been driving a car for 4 hours by the time i cross the border. of course, the two parts of the sentence can be reversed, but the tenses must remain with the correct action: by the time i cross the border i will have been driving for 4 hours. (and yes, it is used rarely... aren't you lucky?) moijelesuis Joined on Sat, Aug 16 2003 usa/canada Full Member 116 Tenses

	Pemmican  +  5203 Thu, 21 Aug 03 10:35 PM I thought about this use, thank you for your example, it helped me a lot But one more question: If the continuing action takes place in the future, the "interrupting" action has to take place in the future as well - So doesn't your example actually have to be either: "I will have been driving a car for 4 hours by the time I will cross the border." (An event that will happen some time after around 4 hours) or: "I will have been driving a car for 4 hours by the time I will be crossing the border." (Exactly after 4 hours I will be in progress crossing the border) or: "I will have been driving a car for 4 hours by the time I will have crossed the border." (After I have crossed the border, I will have been driving for >at least Would these sentences (always depending on the situation) be correct? I'd say, it should be at least a future-form, too in the other sentence because both actions take place in the future... or am I wrong now? Would be interesting to know, thank you kindly. >>Lucky because it is rarely used? Well, even if it was it wouldn't be a big problem I think. One tense more or less out of 13 Pemmican Tenses

	Mike in Japan  +  5251 Fri, 22 Aug 03 10:59 AM Rare? I beg to differ. In my opinion this tense is very common, and by the end of the day, I daresay, it will have been of great use to a great many people. Mike in Japan Joined on Tue, Aug 19 2003 Senior Member 4,371 I do like to be beside the seaside Tenses

	moijelesuis  +  6082 Wed, 27 Aug 03 08:11 PM dear pemmican... sounds like you have studied french (or another romance language)! logically, you are correct that BOTH events are future, but english grammar assumes that the future perfect will logically and contextually place the other event also in the future. (other languages require a future tense for both events.) therefore, your examples are incorrect, a hyper-correction. i understand where you are coming from however. moijelesuis Grammar, Tenses, English Grammar

	Pemmican  +  6089 Wed, 27 Aug 03 08:58 PM Dear Moijelesuis, I'm sorry to disappoint you, but I haven't studied a Romance language (I took French at school for a few years, but I've forgotten nearly everything by now). My question was just because it would have been logical if the 2nd part of those sentences were a future tense, too. But as you've mentioned: It's also logical to assume the other tense will refer to a future event as well and therefore it doesn't have to be announced in a special way. Thank you, another thing that I'll have to keep in mind! Pemmican Tenses