Joy to the world, the lord is "COME" ????

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LittleBitFunny  #307406  Tue, 26 Dec 06 02:26 PM

Joy to the world, the lord is come...

Why is "COME"

not "COMING ?"

And if it correct, what is the meaning and when we have to use this structure ?

Thank you very much.

  
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Grammar Geek  #307410  Tue, 26 Dec 06 02:47 PM

Interesting - I always sang it as "The lord HAS come," but a quick Google search shows me that "IS come" is more common.

It's a slighly odd (perhaps old?) use of "is." Because it's a Christmas carol, you sing it about Jesus' birth. Since he has been born, he has (now) come.   

  
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Cool Breeze  #307428  Tue, 26 Dec 06 04:20 PM
Is come just reflects the German ist gekommen. In German the equivalent of is must often be used as the auxiliary of the perfect tense.

Cheers
CB
  
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Philip  #307436  Tue, 26 Dec 06 04:45 PM
 Cool Breeze wrote:
Is come just reflects the German ist gekommen. In German the equivalent of is must often be used as the auxiliary of the perfect tense.

Cheers
CB
I always thought it was a remnant of the French (Norman Invasion, 1066).  There is a handful of verbs in French conjugated with "to be" rather than "to have" in the passé composé (past) tense.  Rise, [to be] born, arrive, leave, go (all "coming and going" verbs) are some examples.  We also sing "He is risen" and we allow for "he is gone" as well as "he has gone".
  
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Marius Hancu  #307452  Tue, 26 Dec 06 05:54 PM
In many old English texts, "to be" is used as an auxiliary verb instead of the contemporary form with "to have."
  
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CalifJim  #307475  Tue, 26 Dec 06 07:29 PM
what is the meaning, and when [do] we have to use this structure ?


The Lord is come means The Lord has come.  As explained above, the auxiliary for many verbs used to be BE, but these have all changed to HAVE in modern English.

Never use this structure.  It is a structure from centuries ago.  Use only modern English!

CJ

  
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Cool Breeze  #307482  Tue, 26 Dec 06 08:06 PM
I always thought it was a remnant of the French (Norman Invasion, 1066).  There is a handful of verbs in French conjugated with "to be" rather than "to have" in the passé composé (past) tense.  Rise, [to be] born, arrive, leave, go (all "coming and going" verbs) are some examples.  We also sing "He is risen" and we allow for "he is gone" as well as "he has gone".

Hi Philip

There has been vacillation between be and have as the perfect auxiliary in the Germanic languages  -  that's what I really meant to say in my previous post  -  but to my knowledge no one has ever maintained this usage derives from French. As a matter of fact, French had little effect on English grammar in terms of grammatical structures although the number of loan words is remarkable.

One of the structures derived from French is the of-genitive, which most scholars believe is based on the de-structure of the French language. And of course the word order of e.g. court martial reflects French grammar.

The only tenses Old English had were the present tense and the preterite (past tense); in other words, the Angles, Saxons and Jutes who invaded Britain in the 5th century didn't take the perfect, pluperfect and the future tense with them from the continent. Smile [:)]

Cheers
CB
  
Grammar Geek  #307484  Tue, 26 Dec 06 08:08 PM

CB, I'm grateful we didn't end up with all those ways to say "the" either!

  
Cool Breeze  #307486  Tue, 26 Dec 06 08:16 PM
 Grammar Geek wrote:

CB, I'm grateful we didn't end up with all those ways to say "the" either!

 

Hi GG

You can't include everything in a short discussion.Smile [:)] I'll buy you a Velko anyway...

Cheers

CB

  
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