In Subjunctives^x, Grammar^x

Hello, I hope someone reads and helps me What are the differences between the two following sentences in meaning? Do they mean different things or is there a point where they semantically meet? Sometimes I find subjunctive constructions unbelievably complicated. In most cases, it is...

I understand. It's common to say "That was her!" or "That was not her!" even though by the laws of grammar it should be the nominative "That was she." Often our ears protest hearing "It was she," thinking it sounds absurdly pendantic, stuffy, or old fashioned. But once you have the rest of the...

Grammar Geek wrote: In the present tense, use were. He speaks as if he were the president. In the future, I'd use ... well, I don't know what this tense it called, but this: He speaks as if he were going to be the president next year. The would comes in like this: If he were going to be...

Jake, Many speakers have dropped the distinction between "was" and "were" in IF-clauses. They don't use "were" after I, he, she , etc. Others still use "were" in contrary-to-fact IF-clauses. The writers of grammar books recommend the use of "were" in those cases, if that makes a...

I am getting a little lost in the detail of the last few posts as I know no Greek grammar. However, it seems that in a way what you are talking about may be compared to the use of the subjunctive in modern Spanish, which uses that form of the verb rather more frequently than any other modern...

Warrener wrote: Here is a sentence: That half of the light would be lost were it not for the extraordinary structure of the scales. Is this a special grammar usage? It's in the subjunctive mood . It expresses a contrary to fact situation.

Hello, everyone. My husband and I were debating a certain sentence structure. Which is correct - "He recommended that we write you immediately" (my version) or "He recommended that we should write you immediately" (his version)? Please explain the rationale for your answer. I have a feeling this...

So ! My question is this: is "it better be good" grammatically incorrect (I don't see how...)? Or are both of them correct but have different meanings? My theory is that both of them are correct but "it better be good" is a command where as "it'd better be good" carries a subjunctive mood... ...

The " 'd" sound is pretty stealthy and just a few minutes ago I have been picked on typing "it better be good". So! My question is this: is "it better be good" grammatically incorrect (I don't see how...)? Or are both of them correct but have different meanings? My theory is that both of them...

You, Danyoo, and English Grammar in Use are right. It's just that the subjunctive form is identical to the indicative in many cases. English is often ambiguous.