Or, in US English, "it's so a common mistake". At least that was the gist of a discusion here a few months ago. I don't recall the resolution of any such discussion. However, I think in my version of US English: "It is so a

I am writing a letter, of sorts, and have to use some standard wording based on a specific law. I have a problem with the wording in one. The sentence is....."The blank must have been used and occupied for five or more years having began before

The "have" in "I've got it" is not an auxiliary, while "have" and "gotten" in "I've gotten it" are auxiliary and _past participle of get_ respectively.

Tony Mountifield (Email Removed) writes: John Lawler (Email Removed) writes: 3) *He doesn't may/can be home. I wondered if the * was put in anticipating the insertion of a footnote which was then forgotten, explaining that may and can

(snip other interpretations) (Note "thou maugrest" seems more likely than "thou maugreth"; but the expression is in keeping with Chaucer's "maugre" meaning "despite".) If it was a verb and if it was in

It is very old, traceable to the early 1300's as ... liest amidward and therefore have thou maugreth (shown ill will)." (snip other interpretations) (Note "thou maugrest" seems more likely than "thou maugreth"; but the

Enrico C (Email Removed) writes: Einde O'Callaghan writes: "May" is used for this meaning too, just as it also expresses possibility. It is considered slightly more formal. Anyway, when I used *can* as less formal *may*, some native

What books would you recommend to learn more about the modal verbs? I've written here, on alt.english.usage and on uk.culture.language.english; ... I would need some reliable reference based on grammar (correct usage), and actual current usage

"Franco": )>> "you must have liked it a lot". Mike Stevens: "Franco": What is another way of saying that? He means, people in the UK would say it in everyday speech and consider it perfectly correct, but they

Hi, I need help in these: True or False statements 1. The past tense and the past participle forms of regular verbs are always the same. I say this is true. 2. Verbals used as auxiliaries are never used in any other way. 3.