Well, 'Collins Cobuild English Dictionary for Advanced Learners' uses 'them', 'they', 'their', etc to refer back to 'someone', 'something', 'anyone', etc when giving definitions. 'Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary' says that you can use

Hi, these words sound the same but they mean very different things. The word ‘there’ is a word that points to a place. ‘Their’ means that something belongs to a group of people. ‘Their’ is also used instead of his or hers as a generic pronoun.

Yes, it is considered correct by some (majority/minority I don't know). It's a great way to get around "he/she" "his/her" etc. Personally, I use it. Look up "they/their (singular)" on this page:

Is it now considered correct to use "them" or "their" after a singular noun such as "someone", or "person", in order to avoid the awkward phrase "him or her?" For example, are these sentences correct? "What would indicate that someone is not

Hi Hitchhiker, I've just joined the forums, so I hate to start by arguing with you about your advice to Aaron on 'its' (no apostrophe). Surely in the case of 'its becoming...' the 'its' should take an apostrophe because what is meant is 'it is

I agree. However, the oath "For Pete's sake!" is likely a minced form of "For Christ's sake." But didn't people actually swear by saints? In any case, if it is a minced oath, it would do for both "For

It should be Becker's Auto Glass LLC. The rules are here Post:1393

Can someone tell me the rule reguarding possessive nouns. Example: Beckers' Auto Glass LLC..... or..... Becker's Auto Glass LLC. This is a one-man owned and operated business. I was told today that I am using the incorrect puntuation in my last

As whl626 said, no apostrophe after "its" since it is already in possessive form.

Do you mean possessive determiners? Some examples are: their, our, your, his, her. Ryan