Yes! The show is treated as a 3rd person so singular verb (has) is called for.

Hi, rishila, welcome to English Forums. Thanks for joining us! The use of "do" is a little hard to get used to. I'm not sure what you mean by "for pronoun only." It's used a lot in questions and negative statements.

The subject of the sentence is "thing," so you use the singular verb "is." The only things I like are the cars and the girls. The only things I like about it are the car and the girl. The only thing I like about it is

If you're going to use the plural verb, I'd repeat the article: "a book and a workbook." "Book and workbook" are often considered a unit, and (as they say) if you think of them in that way, you may use the singular verb.

The first sentence is correct. When used as a subject 'each' takes singular verbs.

After neither of+noun/pronoun ,we use a singular verb in  a formal style. - Neither of my sisters is married. In an informal style,you can use a plural verb. - Neither of my sisters are married. And your question:Neither can be used alone without

Hello everyone, Would anyone mind having a read through my answers below to see if i'm on the right tracks? I'm looking at the meaning/function and form of the sentence/underlined words! With many thanks!! Fiona is very

Get = 'obtain'. However, 'get' is used in many idiomatic phrasal verbs, which you will have to learn one by one. Here are two of these: Get to + verb = 'Have an opportunity to' + verb Get (something) to + verb = 'Cause (something) to' + verb

I wanna say I had coffeemaking traineeship few years ago. (not now) Then, which one is correct to write between 'be in training' and 'well-trained'?

I just want to point out the word "could" is indicative of the subjunctive mood Modal verbs don't have tenses and moods in the way that other verbs do. could certainly acts like a past subjunctive in If I could help you, I would.