In Present perfect^x, Nouns^x

Hello, ranchhand and paco, you ARE brilliant " /> ! The author of the paper -- actually of a book (1993:6) -- is a Dutch scholar, Henk Verkuyl. I admire him deeply, though, I wasn't sure about what he said.." /> ? . To me, #1 and #2 seem to have the same meaning! Paco... you could write a...

1. Use of present perfect tense and simple past tense Speakers of American English generally use the present perfect tense (have/has + past participle) far less than speakers of British English. In spoken American English it is very common to use the simple past tense as an alternative in...

I learned it the same way, pieanne did - and all my grammar books also say that "just" is a signal word for perfect tenses ---> at least in British English. Americn English tends to use "just" with the Simple Past. "Preterite" btw is applicable to English as well as for every Germanic language...

Hello Guest Since this is for an exam, I don't feel I should give detailed replies. But you may wish to consider: 1. Why the following sentences are ungrammatical: a) Never watch I television. b) Which programmes watched you? Look up Inversion in your grammar book. a) Would you like an...

I would (tentatively) parse the problem slightly differently: 1. She read the letter again. He seemed from the words on the page to have felt some grief when his mother died; but who could be sure. OK. So can we substitute a noun of physical feeling for ‘grief’? 2. She read the letter again....

Greetings. Your example sentence is fine. Please note, though, that, "last week" is compatible with simple past verbs, but it's not compatible with present perfect verbs. EX: *I have seen him last week. You've made an excellent point regarding the verb "seem". I believe "seem" requires a...

In English is it acceptable to omit the pronoun when stating actions completed by one subject? Example: 1) I have spoken to your friend, and have determined that he is a fool. 2) I have spoken to your friend, and I have determined that he is a fool. Is one preferred over the other or are both...

(1) and (2) are fine, Hanuman. They are not adverbs, they are noun objects of the preposition 'since'; the whole prepositional phrase serves as an adverbial. They represent, as I am sure you can see, the extent of time after last week and yesterday, respectively, not those expired time frames...

Too big a question for mortal grammarians, Brinda. BE = exist; copulative verb: You are hungry. COPULATIVE + ADJECTIVE I am Mister Micawber. COPULATIVE + NOUN He is coming. AUXILIARY OF CONTINUOUS ASPECT DO = perform; auxiliary: I do the bookkeeping. TRANSITIVE VERB She doesn't eat...

The sentence is not flawed. You CAN use the present perfect for a past event. But in that case you can't specify an exact time and still remain grammatically correct. ______________ Again, the sentence is fine. There is only one management. With the apostrophe at the end of "managements"...