Encarta search: Ah! So he was the original Form Follows Function man. I'd forgotten that (if I ever knew it). He was indeed but he included as a primary function the need to express the glory of an underlying ... Loos. (He wasathe

Do you mean subject pronouns and object pronouns? I'd say nominative and objective pronouns are used to called them like that in the grammar of some languages.

Could someone help me I need help in nominative pronouns and objective! I need to know everything test on Monday please help!

In the Authorized Version, Jesus says in Mark 9, "Whom say ye that I am?" Shouldn't it be "who"? I ... in the nominative. So what's going on here? Is "that" the real complement of "be"? then what

In the Authorized Version, Jesus says in Mark 9, "Whom say ye that I am?" Shouldn't it be "who"? I ... in the nominative. So what's going on here? Is "that" the real complement of "be"? then what

In the Authorized Version, Jesus says in Mark 9, "Whom say ye that I am?" Shouldn't it be "who"? I was under the impression that, at least in King James's time, the complement of "be" must be in the

Yes yes. Hence we specify that it is a nominative complement.

I think you are right because since we have the verb "to be" we call it a nominative complement by which we mean that "it" is the same person as the subject. However, it is still a complement. Used with another verb other than the verb "to be", it

That's the thing, though. It's not an object. It's a nominative complement. Here's a link to some good ol' Fowler that will back me up: http://www.bartleby.com/116/201.html (He gives examples, and in the examples, the italicized words are

The phrase as a whole is an adverb: ... nominative case.) The question you ask thus does not arise. The phrase as a whole is in English: therefore none of its constituent words has case. It is preposterous to ... that "hours" is in the