By Inflections

The negative can go both ways in terms of expectations. I think if it's stated as more of a statement: You don't like Tom, do you? without much of an upward inflection, then you are expecting a negative. But if you ask it with a real upward inflection: You're not dating him, are you??, then you...

Hi allIt would be interesting to hear from nonnative speakers of English in particular what influence English exerts on other languages nowadays. What English words and expressions are used in your language? Does English grammar or syntax have an influence on your native language? Where is this...

only the first verb of a verb phrase is finite (inflected for person) might have -- might is a modal -- no inflection

Pemmican wrote:Why do you disagree, milky??? Btw: Why is it called "Saxon Genitive"? Does anyone know?? Becuse it is the only noun inflection surviving from Old English or Anglo-Saxon Sorry, there is one more: the plural 's' Inchoateknowledge

Inchoateknowledge wrote: do we drop the '-s' inflection in conditional mood? NO quod erat demonstrandum Mind you: it's a poem we're addressing, and it owns poetic liscense.

do we drop the '-s' inflection in conditional mood? NO quod erat demonstrandum

«...using an upward inflection to indicate the question» This is also used when you fail to hear something: — Our lector is professor Wolfengagen. — Prefossor WHAT?! — The resulting solid is called rhombicosidodecahedron. — Called what?!

The second is grammatically correct, but would probably be regarded as pedantic if spoken. In speech you could also ask this question as You belong to which village?, using an upward inflection to indicate the question.

what did you know and when did you know ? Since English does not require the speaker to specify perfective or imperfective aspect in the words or inflections he chooses in this example, we can only guess how the speaker was thinking when he said it. It would be translated into a language...

She has been suffering from mental disorder since she was born. No. 'post-partum' means after the birth of her children, not her own birth. She has a history of post-natal depression. She has been hospitalised for this but it doesn't necessarily mean many times. She might have only been in...