Hi, Here are the ones that I would correct (and I hope I haven't made any mistakes, but if I have somebody will fix them, don't worry! ): 1. If I knew where he lived, I’ d visit him. 1- second 3. If I hadn’t picked up Martin’s

we would had have seen After a modal verb, the only form of the verb have that is possible is have itself -- never has or had or having . would is a modal verb, so only have can follow it. Think of the modal expressions as these and ONLY these:

need can be used both as an ordinary verb and a modal verb. "Need" means something like "must have". "Need to" is something like "must". It's not quite the same, but it has a very similar meaning.

Can you explain the difference between ''couldn't see with can't have seen'' ?

"I've an answer to your question." I don't think that is correct, American English. I believe it works for Brittish English. Agreed. Correct: I think I'll have another. Agreed. Incorrect: I'll my beliefs into reality.

I've been wondering, if anyone knows for sure: I know saying "I've" is fine for contraction I and the modal form of have. But, it seems to be an error to use the contraction with the non-modal form of the verb as in:

Hi. Thank you so much. If I am not mistaken the two sentences that you corrected are representative of first conditional sentences. Could we have use the modal verb "should" in first conditional sentences like this (borrowing the

It would depend. would is a modal. Use only the dictionary form of a verb (the bare infinitive) after a modal. CJ

See Re: May/might, can/could, shall/should, must/have to, will/would - when to use what? for a start. Then you might want to do a Google search for ideas for further research. And don't neglect to check at your local library. CJ

what kind of info do u need exactly?