Hi Tinanam0102 You asked about the word "it", but you also underlined "it" twice, and "it" refers to different things in each case. Here is my opinion: "it had intended" it = the (Spanish) government The

If it's simple past, you don't need to use "have" in front of the simple past tense. "I shouldn't ate it." "I shouldn't have eaten it." is correct.

I shouldn't have ate it. Or I shouldn't have eaten it. What's the difference? The second sentence is present perfect so is the first sentence simple past tense?

Hi, Yes. But you need a context in which it makes sense to use the Past Perfect. Best wishes, Clive

If your answer was "yes" to the above question, you will go to step 2. This is possible, but as an instruction the imperative would normally be used. If your answer was "yes", go to step 2. If you would, I will be happy. This

Could drunk be the past tense of drink? No. drank is the past tense. CJ

Could drunk be the past tense of drink?

The past tense of "split" is "split," not "splitted."

He didn't know how high her IQ was. Or He didn't know how high her IQ is. Could the second one be used? I know the sentence is supposed to be past tense. Thks!

'Have' has far too many uses to examine on this thread. Here is one dictionary's list: HAVE –verb (used with object) 1. to possess; own; hold for use; contain: He has property. The work has an index. 2. to hold, possess, or accept in some