Do/does/did is not used in questions 1. with forms of to be : Is he happy? Were they swimming? 2. with perfect and past perfect auxiliaries : Have you seen him? Had it already begun? 3. sometimes with have/has/had when the verb is in the

1. There is no objection to the use of time words with the past perfect tense. The objection is when these words are used with the present perfect tense. You may, however, if you wish, replace "last week" with "the previous

They had to have that specially made? The sentence is in the past tense. Since English lacks verbs for situations in which person A does something for person B on person B's request, a rather long and awkward structure is used instead: to have

If you are not sure, you may still be confused even with the best explanations. But here are a few rules and examples: 1) Does he have a car? In question form, even 3rd still takes the bare infinitve form (have) because of the modal word

Hi, Would you say the auxiliary verb (hope it is an auxilary verb) 'had' is implicit in the part after the word 'and' and before the word 'won' in the sentence you introduced in the following (looks to be from an online

1 & 2-- They can share the auxiliary so long as the meaning is commonsensical and the verbs are truly parallel. 3-- Fine.

1. Before they arrived, I had finished cooking and had set up the table. 2. Before they arrived, I had finished cooking and set up the table. When using past perfect in the main clause, do I use "had" before all past particles ?

Hi. Would you say the auxiliary verb (hope it is an auxilary verb) 'had' is implicit in the part after the word 'and' and before the word 'won' in the sentence you introduced in the following (looks to be from an online web

Hi Anon: If you look in any English language reference book under verb tenses, you will find the answer to your question. "be" is a helping verb (auxilliary) for the passive voice of verbs, and "have" is the helping verb for