Search results for 'tag:Before and After tag:Nouns' matching tags 'Before and After' and 'Nouns'

Re: multiple nouns & which

CalifJim — Sat, 29 Dec 2007 02:35:14 GMT

The referent of which is always dependent on the meaning of the clauses before and after. Commas have nothing to do with it.

CJ

Re: until beginning his investigation

CalifJim — Fri, 14 Dec 2007 03:50:21 GMT

Given the structure:
he drew compensation from the team until beginning his investigation in March 2006.

One possible paraphrase is as you have written it:
he drew compensation from the team until the beginning of his investigation in March 2006.

But a better paraphrase is:
he drew compensation from the team until he began his investigation in March 2006.

The reason is that beginning is more of a verb than a noun after until. The subject that is assumed in an until -ing structure is the subject of the main clause that goes with the until clause.

In addition to until, the expressions since, before, and after are also used in this construction.

Marilyn looked through the window before knocking on the door. (... before she knocked ...)
Since learning the bad news, Sally has been very quiet. (Since she learned ...)
After raking the leaves, Don swept the walk. (After he raked ...)

I'm just guessing, but I believe this construction is more used with before and after than with the others.

CJ

Re: What does in the making in the following sentence means?

Grammarian-bot — Mon, 04 Dec 2006 05:49:14 GMT

Inchoateknowledge wrote:

something is in the making is a quite frequently used idiom:

if someone is an athlete, star, writer, etc. in the making, they are likely to develop into that thing
This young swimmer is an athlete in the making. (Cambridge dic)

"an economic catastrophe in the making characterized by an income base primarily dependent on companies engaged in paper shuffling" is not a clause but a noun phrase that is in apposition to industrial base.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apposition

Well it does look like an appositive but does the whole text "an economic catastrophe .....in shuffling papers" is an appositive. And if it is, then it must be with the whole initial text "Hartford continues to lose its industrial base" since industrial base can't' stand for the rest of the sentence. But if that is true then a question arises whether the first and second part of the sentence (both before and after comma) isa noun phrase or not since both should be noun or noun phrase. Please explain.

Re: however

MrPedantic — Mon, 13 Mar 2006 22:32:52 GMT

No, unfortunately...that's only implicit. There has to be a link between the participle and an explicit subject pronoun (or subject noun).

What are the sentences before and after?

MrP

Re: Some grammar

odoriko — Sun, 27 Jun 2004 18:28:10 GMT

1) The "has" is required because it shows that it's a present perfect tense, ie. Jones denied using drugs in the past and at present, is still denying it. It's a repetition and continuation of the verb (denied) from the past to the present. If you say "Jones consistently denied", it implies that he only denied it in the past and is no longer denying it.

2) The word "line-up" with a hyphen is a common noun, eg. a line-up of footballers. "Line up" without the hyphen denotes a verb, eg. please line up before the train arrives.

3) "For one" as used in that sentence means "according to her opinion". You're right when you say that it is a more forceful expression.

4) Using commas to seperate "I", "for one", and the rest of the sentence is actually correct, and a more formal way of writing. Another (often unknown) use of commas is before an "and" when 3 objects are being discussed, because it denotes that there's no special relation between what comes before and after the "and". This sounds confusing, so here's an example:

I love apples, bananas, and pears.
I love apples, bananas and pears.

The 1st sentence is correct because there's no special relation between the bananas and pears, just as there's no special relation between the apples and bananas. If you write the 2nd sentence instead, it actually means that you like either apples, or "bananas and pears" together. However, this is more on the formal side, most people won't bother with it, and teachers will probably overlook it.

Please correct me if I made any mistake.

Re: any comma before and after e.g. i.e.

Raul — Thu, 18 Sep 2003 17:37:39 GMT

There must be a comma before only:

Public schools, ie state free-of-charge schools in this country, are in crisis.

Uncountable nouns, eg bread, money and time, do not have plural forms.

Now, "ie" (id est) and "eg" (exampli gratia) may have a dot depending on the English variation. Americans write "i.e." and "e.g."