I don't think there's a contraction for "was", at least in most varieties of English, although I remember reading somewhere that 's can also be a contraction of was (but don't think it very common and I guess it's

I don't fully understand what a contraction is. So if I put an 's, 'll, 'd, 've, etc after any word does it make it a contraction? Only in spoken English. But in written English, some contractions are not usually written that

Jame is a very peculiar name, but you can contract it with is as you have done. The pronunciation of Spanish is and Spanish's is the same, so there's no point in using the apostrophe construction. Use the contraction only when the

I'm more familiar with the name "James" than "Jame" but perhaps "Jame" is a common name in other cultures. If the person's name really is "James" then it becomes "James's here"

Even Jame's here!? What about my Spanish's mediocre at best.

Hi Anon No, using "of" rather than "have" would always be grammatically incorrect. However, it is a mistake that quite a few native speakers of English make when writing. When you say " would've been " (which is

True, Anonymous! Pluralized acronyms should not use apostrophes. As an experienced English Tutor/Mentor, apostrophes are used in possession of & in contractions (i.e., Jane's cat won't eat fish.) To place an apostrophe after an acronym or

Because there are two acceptable ways in modern English: (1) With contraction: Why don't you come in and wait? (2) Without the contraction: Why do you not come in and wait? Or in conversational English: Why not come in and wait?

In one of her latest songs, Whitney Houston ("call you tonight") sings: I'mma call you tonight I will baby Just as soon as I get home So "I'mma" is definetly a sort of contraction of "I will"

Well, your sentences are not very good examples, but when someone uses 'Got...' (' Got any gold?' 'Got a match? ) in spoken English, it is a casual contraction of ' Have you got ', which is present perfect in tense and aspect.