I was really glad to help, Icadia. Ask again should you have any further questions on grammar and related areas. Respectfully, Gleb Chebrikoff

Thanks for your nice answer. You helped me.

Icadia, I understood the focus of your question; therefore, I mentioned that 'if the indirect speech itself contains a subordinate clause (introduced by until... in your case), then the verb of that subordinate clause may be in the present

Thanks!! I appreciate your replies. Yes. you are right. I think the legislation about driving is still effective, so the tenses don't need to be changed, which means his comment is still relevant. I posted a contradictory question. If his

Greetings, Icadia, Direct speech: It's against the law in our state for her to drive until she has been seizure-free for six months. Indirect speech: 1. The provisions of the legislation have probably not changed by the time of reporting

This is the correct sentence: John said that it is /was against the law in our state for her to drive until she has been * seizure-free for six months. *It will always be "has been", because it is a present-perfect-progressive. John

A weeks ago. John made a comment below. John's comment: "it's against the law in our state for her to drive until she has been seizure-free for six months." Now. I am reporting what he said, Let's consider his comment

What you're saying is that it really doesn't matter which one to use? That's right. Both are in the category of casual speech, and it doesn't matter which you use. You can use one of them in the morning and the other in the

Female speech is typically cooperative, reciprocal and collaborative . How do should I understand these three? They cooperate, reciprocate, and collaborate. That is, each helps the other to keep the conversation going, each allows the other

I understand that "I've gotta ~" and "I gotta ~" both mean "I have got to ~," and both are quite common in colloquial terms. Now my question is, which one of them is actually more frequently used in your everyday