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what What is the difference between in the and in ? The first one contains the word the ; the second one doesn't. the is a determiner; it goes with the following noun, which you have not included. So unless you give us whole sentences, there
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With the determiner, there's a noun in front of the main verb. Is this the only difference between the two? Having the noun in front of the verb is not the important part. What is important is that the determiner is followed by a noun. ... why
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From my searching, I have found: Determiner Question words: which, what, whose In questions, these words ask which thing or person is being referred to. They are placed before the noun. Which dress are you going to wear tonight? What colour is
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Thanks, M.M. for your help. I was just consulting my dictionary for it when u replied. But to my great surprise Her has not been mentioned in my dictionary as an adjective, but as a pronoun and determiner. In the later case its function was the
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1. When is it right to put the before the determiner the before the word "future" and when not?
The first sentence is Nona's:
Phew, this is a long one Believer, it might be better if you split these things up into several posts in future.
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1. In the case of putting the determiner "the" in front of nouns, I think the criteria we would apply are 1) the case of specificity and 2) the case of a prior precedent. OK. In applying the stated criteria, can we use a "either one" approach or a
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Hi,
Can anyone tell me what is the difference between an article and a determiner? Some solid examples to help me to distinguish the two will be appreciated.
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[quite" is used as a modifier for verbs<<Can fairly,pretty,rather used as this? Quite" is can be used as a pre-determiner <<Can fairly,pretty,rather used as this?
thank^^
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Anonymous wrote: We can use quite in the following : 1)quite+ adj/adv 2)quite+ article(a/an)+ adj + countable noun If the noun is uncountable, can I use quite+ adj + noun? 3)quite + article(a/an) + noun 4)quite +verb Can pretty, rather or fairly
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Hello Clive I am interested in Shirley's question. At first I thought that the use of "more of" in Shirley's sentence might come from a syntactic restriction that two determiners ("more" and "their" in the Shirley's sentence) cannot be put before
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