Search results for 'tag:Difference between tag:English grammar' matching tags 'Difference between' and 'English grammar'

Re: Difference between using much and many

CalifJim — Tue, 19 Aug 2008 06:51:18 GMT

Guest
Please send me the grammar rule for using much and many in sentences and the reasons behind this usage.

much is used with singular nouns. much butter, much water, not much information, not much hope, Much of it is ...

many is used with plural nouns. many cars, many letters, not many horses, not many details, Many of them are ...

There is no particular reason behind the usage. It's just a convention of English grammar.

I don't think it's necessary to consider whether a noun is countable; the singular-plural rule is sufficient because an uncountable can't be used in the plural anyway.

Re: follow-up to 'article'

CalifJim — Fri, 01 Aug 2008 00:44:46 GMT

Anonymous
Can anyone please tell me why Mr. M said what he said

I don't think anyone around here reads minds. Only Mr. M. can answer as to the reasons for his answer, and it seems to me that he already has given reasons.

As for your sentences, I don't see anything problematic with them except as corrected below:

1.They reached agreement, and the agreement was for the payment of 400 dollars.
2.They signed an agreement, and the agreement was for the payment of 400 dollars.

The only difference is the difference between the verb reach and the verb sign, and you can easily find those in any dictionary.

reach agreement is a fixed idiom where an article is not needed.

_____

Just for future reference, I think it would be more polite to ask your questions without challenging others specifically by name. Such challenges diminish your chances of receiving an answer, because no one wishes to get into an unpleasant discussion where it's more important to prove someone right or wrong than it is to understand the principles of English grammar.

They are going to be playing tennis in the afternoon/They will be playing tennis in the afternoon.

Jesusengland — Fri, 18 Jul 2008 14:49:58 GMT

Hello.
I can't understand the difference in meaning between "be going to be doing" and "will be doing" in the future continuous. What is it? I have read in an english grammar book that there is a little difference between them, but I don't know what it is.

- They are going to be playing tennis in the afternoon.
- They will be playing tennis in the afternoon.

Thanks.

Re: Please correct me! Thank you so much!

Pleasecorrectme — Tue, 27 May 2008 05:48:38 GMT

Thank you so much ! That helps me a lot ! But , I have some english grammar question I am still confuse about.

julielai

I began to imagine what his reaction would be ~~like~~ when he sees this game-set. Will he cry? Will he jump with delight?

Imagine how happy Nat will be when he receives my present!

If there is a ' would ' , I am not allow to put any singular or past tense ?

Oh, and should the ' will ' be corrected to would?
So , is would the past tense of will ? I always thought there is a difference between will and would .

difference between "help to" and "help"

Anonymous — Thu, 22 May 2008 16:21:31 GMT

I'm looking for the different use of "help to" and "help" verb, both of them are followed by infinitive. I don't understand their usage and in my English grammar there are not any definitions.

When I have to use "help to" and when "help"?

Thanks in advance for your hep!

Valeria

Re: Correct use of "... of yours"

Anonymous — Fri, 16 May 2008 15:39:28 GMT

"Yours" means "belonging to you" and thus both of the examples you quote is correct, although the latter "this watch of yours" is more colloquial and would be regarded by some as poor English, even though it is widely used. The word may also be used in letter as in "Yours faithfully". It should never be written "your's" !! Also look our for the difference between "your" and "you're" - incorrect use of these words is a very common event in English. Remember "your" means "belonging to you" whereas "you're" means "you are".

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Re: Complexity of grammar

Cool Breeze — Thu, 25 Oct 2007 09:35:32 GMT

Orpheus wrote:
Do you think that the complexity of grammar of a language reflects the elaborate thinking of its speakers?

No, not in the least. If that were true, present-day Anglo-Saxons' thinking would be greatly inferior to that of their forebears 1200 years ago. While Old English wasn't grammatically complex compared with the language I know best, Finnish, it was a lot more complicated than modern English. In many respects Old English grammar resembled modern German grammar: three genders for nouns, strong masculines, verbs inflected more than today, many plural endings etc.

In my opinion English-speaking people can be just as complex and articulate as speakers of other languages and they can have just as lucid thoughts as other people. The English language just isn't the best tool possible to convey these thoughts because the language is sometimes ambiguous and inexact even though the speakers aren't. There is more often room for misunderstanding when people speak English than there is when a more exact language is employed.

The absolute superlative is a good example. Many educated linguists say there is no absolute superlative in English! Yet they use the absolute superlative in their speech. Who's to know what they really mean when they utter their sentences? For a speaker of a language where there is always a difference between the relative and the absolute superlative it may occasionally be too demanding a task to figure out what exactly is meant.

Cheers
CB

Re: Grammar book

Quangtrungvtv — Fri, 28 Sep 2007 07:39:12 GMT

Goodman wrote:

what [is] the difference between your sentence and mine?

Quangtrungvtv,

From what I can see, reading grammar book is not the only thing you need. From perpsonal experience, listening, speaking, reading, studying, and practicing all play an equally important role in the learning of correct English. It's a long process and it can not be rushed. Keep asking and keep learning. Don't give up.

Yes , I have to practice more , I often go to library, there are many english grammar book ... but I don't choose what book is the best for me???

Re: Logic and negative sentences

Teleostomi — Thu, 13 Sep 2007 09:14:07 GMT

Hi, I enjoyed reading this thread, and learned a lot of new things about English grammar.

I'm now OK with partial negation, but are there any rules regarding what Kooyeen raised as a side discussion item?

Negation of "A, B, and C" ---> Should we take <not...A, B or C> or <not...A, B and C>

In other words, is there any difference between (1) and (2)?

(1) I don't like beef, pork and lamb.
(2) I don't like beef, pork or lamb.

Clause and phrase

Bird Of Paradise — Sun, 01 Jul 2007 10:45:03 GMT

Please someone tell me what is the difference between a clause and a phrase?

Aslo I am in search of some valuable website which contains a detailed information about parts of speech and other basics of English grammar. It will be very kind if someone could please show it to me.

Thanks.