Search results for 'tag:English grammar tag:Correct spelling' matching tags 'English grammar' and 'Correct spelling'

Re: How do you spell "automotopia"?

Anonymous — Thu, 03 Apr 2008 06:45:39 GMT

the correct spelling is automotopia. its an english grammar term used to express an action in a way. example. when u open a soda can, it POPS in a loud manner. i hope that helped you =)

Re: Reduplication com'on guyyyyyyyyyyz

khoff — Fri, 07 Dec 2007 15:18:53 GMT

Hello, welcome to the forum. I just wanted to let you know that you are more likely to get a response if your post includes capital letters and punctuation, and avoids abbreviations like "how r u" and "plz." I don't mean to offend you -- but the people here are all volunteers, and we choose how we want to spend out time. Many people will be more inclined to help you if you make an effort to use standard English. Correct spelling is also a plus -- of course we don't expect English learners to spell everything perfectly, and typos do happen to everyone, but if you are studying linguistics you should at least know it is not ligustic.

Also, although personally I am not familiar with "reduplication," it sounds like the Linguistics section is the appropriate place for your post -- you don't need to "reduplicate" it in General English Grammar Questions and Basic English Grammar.

Re: The accusitive case

Mike A. — Tue, 18 Nov 2003 19:16:28 GMT

The first thing to note is the spelling: the correct spelling is a-c-c-u-s-a-t-i-v-e. Another thing to note is that the term often employed to identify the "case" of words like "him", "her" and "whom" is Objective, rather than Accusative (which is misleading in a simplified grammar like English's.)

Unlike German, English doesn't really have a well-developed Dative or Accusative case. We used to have those cases at an earlier stage of the language's development, but now those cases are only vestigial. Our "allgemein" Objective case, where it exists at all, performs both Dative and Accusative functions. What gives you the difference in meaning is generally word order.

For example, in the sentence "I gave him a spoon" -- which in German would be something like "Ich gab ihm einen Loeffel" -- "him" is a word in the Objective case, but it is clearly performing a dative function here. If you want to, you can decide that "him" is in the Dative case, but in English grammar it doesn't make much sense to think of a Dative case. We know that "him" is the indirect object of the verb -- i.e., performs a dative function -- because it *precedes* what is obviously the direct object, "spoon". Note that "spoon", the direct object, is unmarked by case ending, unlike the German.

On the other hand, in a sentence like "I saw him yesterday" -- which in German would be "Ich sah ihn gestern" -- it's the same word "him", in the same Objective case, but since there is no possible role for "him" in this sentence other than the direct object, you know that it has to be the direct object.

In American English, the normal practice would be for indirect objects to precede the direct objects: "I gave him a spoon." In British English -- or so I believe -- sometimes the practice is the opposite: the British might say "I gave it him" -- where "it" (the direct object) comes first.

Hope this helps.

Mike

Search results for 'tag:English grammar tag:Correct spelling' matching tags 'English grammar' and 'Correct spelling'

Re: How do you spell &quot;automotopia&quot;?

Re: Reduplication com'on guyyyyyyyyyyz

Re: The accusitive case

Re: How do you spell "automotopia"?