In Expressions^x, American English^x, Idioms^x

Hi Fandorin You seem to be mixing things up. Angliholic's sentence is not an example of the idiomatic " to have got ", which means basically the same thing as "to have" or "to possess". In that idiom, it is not possible to change the word 'got' to...

Hi Kooyeen There is nothing to forgive! I am certainly not in the least offended by your post. In fact, I enjoyed reading it tremendously! I even agree with you to some extent on some of the points you made. I am the first person to admit that my knowledge of English isn't as good as that of a...

Hi Peter, if you know English well, you should easily understand when they talk. If you don't understand, that means there's something wrong with your English. I have trouble understanding too, but I realized that's because my English is not as good as it should be in order to understand...

Howdy This is the article I've written a while ago. I hope that it can be interesting for someone. This is one of my first attempts to bring all my thoughts together. "A language is a living substance, which evolves under the influence of different factors. Being very flexible English...

The situation seems more illogical in American English, perhaps! I can also accept the argument that in AmE "got" in the "has got"="has" idiom is so idiomatic and particular to that very expression and no other that it almost ceases to have the status of a past participle.

In article (Email Removed), Jerry Friedman (Email Removed) writes: The expression is still commonly used in the UK. I suppose these two examples indicate that idioms in American English and in British English often differ. -- John Hall "If a man will begin with certainties, he shall end in...