In the example that "CJ" gave, what is(what are) the grammar reason(reasons) that "Having" is used as a noun - ie, how can one discern that it is used as a noun in this sentence as opposed to a participle? Hi Philip: The verb

Hello Roro! #1 doesn't sound quite right; "up to/until 9pm" is too slippery for the future perfect. The peg slides back and forth in a groove. You have to hammer it firmly into the space-time continuum instead: 1. By 9pm, I will have been

Thank you, MrP, too! For your thorough clarification, which I needed (I'm sorry I was not clear enough about what I understood, what I got from your explanation). Please let me think them over; .. I have just a little question now, may I ask

Hello MrPedantic again, I was not aware of this point before: As to & you have to drop 'for hours' ┈┈ it conflicts with 'until' ┈┈ and use the future progressive: 'I'll be slaving away till you get to work tomorrow'. I thought the

Hello there. I just got interested in Pemmican's question and all of the replies above. From kitkattail's example (+α): By the time you get to work tomorrow, I will have been slaving away for hours. By the time you get to work tomorrow, I will