I just thought ealrier today that "th" and "d" in fast unclear speech must be indistinguishable, after I heard something on youtube. I'll try to find it again. (EDIT: On second thought I think that depends a lot on the

Hey! That's a little tricky. You can say CAN AS /kæn/ and kɛn as weakened, but you can pronounce the negative the same way in fast speech. all depends on the context. That's the reason you sometimes hear "I can't do it the same

Language teachers, could you tell us about some ways in which you are providing "learners with the tools to cope with 'real-life' communication ..."? Here in my country, they don't. And I heard it's so in most other

It seems that an aspirate has the air flowing *while* the consonant is being pronounced, without there necessarily even being a closure that's released. No, an aspirate consonant has a distinct sound of escaping air before the following

{d} is defined by the International Phonetic Association to be ... it seems doubtful that the consonant should be called plosive. It seems to me that you're confusing plosives and aspirates. I don't think so. The New Shorter Oxford says

The pronunciaton of 't' as 'd', particularly in casual speech, is a feature of many varieties of English. In south-east England, of course, sloppy 't' becomes a glottal stop, and in north-west England it becomes

But I think your "oy" is what I know as "oi!", an interjection that I closely associate with white-supremacist Nazi skinheads, especially if they have Cockney accents. Time for some thread drift: in a novel I read recently by

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