Search results for 'tag:Indirect questions tag:Negatives' matching tags 'Indirect questions' and 'Negatives'

Re: ..why do I have vs ..why I have

EagerSeeker — Thu, 21 Aug 2008 16:43:25 GMT

Tanit

Hi,

As Goodman says, only the first one is correct,
From your post and your examples, I understand you've got Swann's book, right?
So, may I suggest another approach to clear your doubt?
That's an indirect question.
If you've got the same edition as me (the 3rd), have a look at section 276, "Indirect speech: questions and answers":

In reported questions the subject normally comes before the verb in standard English, and auxiliary do is not used.
- DIRECT: Where's Alice?
- INDIRECT: I asked where Alice was. (NOT ... ~~where was Alice~~.)
...
- DIRECT: What do I need?
- INDIRECT: She asked what she needed. (NOT ... ~~what did she need~~.)
...

If we try and use the same approach:

- DIRECT: Why do I have two cars?
- INDIRECT: You may wonder why I have two cars. (NOT ... ~~why do I have two cars~~.)

Yes, you are absolutely right! It is indeed indirect speech (I realized it later after reading more) and then we don't use auxiliary "do" in indirect questions.
But I found this to be a tricky one. Yes, I have Swan's book but he doesn't mention that we can use auxiliary do in indirect speech when the sentence
is negative.

I found this from my Finnish-English grammar book: "Auxiliary do is not used in indirect questions except in negative sentences".
Example: "Philip asked why children didn't read anymore."

So on the basis of what has been said so far I would find these examples correct:

"You may wonder why I have two cars."
"You may wonder why I don't have two cars." (negative sentence)
"You may wonder why I do have two cars." (emphatic sentence)

That emphasis is a nice suggestion from you guys!

Re: Tense in conditional sentence

Tanit — Sun, 04 May 2008 10:56:28 GMT

Hi, N2G,

Besides in indirect questions (the examples previously given), if + will works also to indicate volition (or refusal in its negative form, "if + won't" ) or insistence, and, yes, it can be used at the beginning of a sentence. Here are the links to some other threads where these kinds of if + will were discussed. Hope you'll find them useful.

http://www.englishforums.com/English/IfAdjectiveClauses/zjqbg/post.htm
http://www.englishforums.com/English/NoCondition/vrcvh/post.htm
http://www.englishforums.com/English/IfClauseFuture/2/cwgxp/Post.htm

Re: did I / can I/ have I in affirmative clauses

Tanit — Sat, 16 Feb 2008 12:08:35 GMT

Hi Giuseppe, and welcome!

The structure you're referring to is called "inversion."

Your examples fall into a singular category (that of negative/restrictive expression) which includes other expressions, such as barely, scarcely, hardly, seldom, little, never, under no circumstances, at no time, etc (there are many more!)

Besides in direct questions, inversion is also used:

In short tags. "I like it!" "So do I"
In formal/emphatic conditional sentences: "Should you need further information, please call ..."
When expressing wishes starting with may: "May you find what you're searching for."
Sometimes in indirect questions, especially when the subject is too long (cannot think of an example right now, sorry!)
Sometimes (quite literary) after as, so, than: "She was very pretty, as were her sisters."

There can be other circumstances in which inversion occurs; these are the ones that came to my mind.

As for your examples, I think the first one needs a past simple because you've got a time reference (Only yesterday did I realise...). I also would put an object (it) after repeat.

I'm not a native either, so you'd probably better wait for one of them.

Re: "Any of the bits"

CalifJim — Sat, 01 Dec 2007 02:55:36 GMT

There are quite a few idioms where tell is not used exactly the same as in to tell someone something.

The following are usually negative and usually followed by an indirect question or a that clause. These mean that something is not obvious or easily seen by the subject of the sentence.

can't tell / not be able to tell / impossible to tell (if ..., whether ..., how many ..., which ..., where ..., when ..., that ...)

I can't tell what it says on that sign. I must need new glasses.
Judy was unable to tell where the dress had been torn and repaired.
No one could tell that the violinist made a mistake.
___________

Note the idiom not be able to tell the difference.

Sherry said that she had put too much salt in the stew, but I'm sure that nobody else could tell the difference.
___________

The affirmative form can tell means that something is obvious, easily seen.

I can tell that you've passed the exam. You look very happy.
You can tell when the dog is hungry. He lies by his dish and looks up hopefully every time anyone passes by.
I could tell that Jake was nervous when he gave his speech.

CJ

Re: noun clause

Diamondrg — Tue, 21 Mar 2006 21:27:08 GMT

Diamondrg wrote:

What about these?

1- I'll take whoever wants to go. (Longman)

2- I'll take who wants to go.

3- I don't know who knows the truth.

4- I don't know whoever knows the truth.

What is the rule governing their use?

do you think these are all correct?

In an earlier thread, CalifJim said that 4 is not correct, but I didn't get the reason. Let me quote:

- I'll take whoever wants to go. (Longman)

is it different from

- I don't know who knows the truth

whoever is not used in an indirect question structure.
Indirect question structure:

Who knows the truth?
I don't know. I don't know who knows the truth.

This sentence is not saying I don't know anyone who knows the truth.

I don't know who knows the truth.
we are committed to the existence of someone who knows the truth at the moment of the utterance. The identity of the knower of the truth is not known, but there is such a person. We just don't know which person it is. Here it is not a matter of waiting for some future event to reveal the identity of this knower of the truth.

CJ

Yes. It's different. And complicated. Both the differences in semantic properties of the verbs take and know and the presence or absence of a negative create complications which lead me to say these are really different cases.

I don't have a definite all-inclusive answer at this time, but I'll think about it and give a fuller response later if I can get my brain around the network of all the subtleties.

Meanwhile, as a purely tentative first shot at an explanation, I'm inclined to say that whoever can't be used after a negative without either changing the meaning of whoever or creating an anomalous sentence.

I am interested in ---- broke the machine.

A) who B) whom C) whoever D) whomever

"Who" would be the best choice....but it would be better following "interested in knowing.....

Philip

Hi, C. Clive