Hi all, Thanks in advance for your help in answering this question. I'm trying to explain to a non-native English speaker that a certain usage is either incorrect or awkward, but I find myself unable to do so. At this point, I'm just

Alright, so modals are not inflected... That should mean they are non finite. How come they do not work in nonfinte contexts such as infinitive clauses then? If you argue that the form of the verb is what marks an inflection, how do you

Hello Anon I feel the present tense in the infinitive clause is a redundant expression. " I am grateful for the opportunity to make your acquaintance " is enough. I'll say simply "I am glad to meet you". paco

I have read some books introducing the following sentences as infinitive clause. You must book early As far as my understanding, a clause contains a finite verb(verbs showing tense, person or singular \ plural. not a non-finite verb(verbs