Might is always considered a modal in English. However, and that is why I think yours is a good question, in other languages, such as my own – which is Dutch – we do in fact add an adverb to the verb phrase of the sentence. In the end, the

I found a website that could help you. I'll quote part of it for you: "May/might is an example of a modal auxiliary verb. The distinction between may and might has to do with the tense (present, past etc.) and/ or mood (indicative/

One such grammatical distinction causing much confusion is the use of the modal auxiliaries ‘may’ and ‘might’. When used in the present tense, the two modals are almost transposable, as the difference between the two is merely a very small degree

Statement: "Must" is about subjective necessity and "have to" about objective necessity. If so, why can't we use "must" in the past? -Remember that "must" is a full modal verb and "have to" is not. -Remember also that all 9 core modals,

Hellow Zewu I'm an English learner from Japan. I am afraid I don't know much about English enough to answer such questions as those you are asking. But allow me to put my two cents worth. First of all, let me define some grammatical terms.

That is perhaps where the difference between "should" and "ought to" comes in. I may not think I "should" point something oput, but it is possible that legally I "ought to". My question meant: "Does

Also, if you count "will" as constituting a tense on ... As a separate tense of its own (the past future)? The use of will/shall to form the future tense is only one use of the word. It still remains a modal auxiliary, with a past tense.

There are only two tenses in English: past and present. The verb forms and auxiliaries associated with these two tenses ... : I ran. progressive aspect: am/was running perfect aspect : have/had run prefect & progressive aspects combined:

G'day mate!Just to give my point of view as a french native speaker, I think the English language is pretty easy compared to ours on many grounds. First, for the verbal system, English does not contriguate the verbs French does, however you

Could someone please help a layman with these two grammar ... the seaside', but how can I explain why it's wrong? First, "might" is a modal auxiliary here and "to" never follows a modal auxiliary. Second, the grammar of