They had to have that specially made? The sentence is in the past tense. Since English lacks verbs for situations in which person A does something for person B on person B's request, a rather long and awkward structure is used instead: to have

Might is always considered a modal in English. However, and that is why I think yours is a good question, in other languages, such as my own – which is Dutch – we do in fact add an adverb to the verb phrase of the sentence. In the end, the

It is advisable to learn the various ways of using the modal auxiliaries without thinking of grammatical moods at the same time. These auxiliaries lack forms ( must has only one form, for example) and the potential mood, as it exists in some

I found a website that could help you. I'll quote part of it for you: "May/might is an example of a modal auxiliary verb. The distinction between may and might has to do with the tense (present, past etc.) and/ or mood (indicative/

have done something. had done somthing. If the above sentences were preceded by: could/ would/may..etc I'm afraid I have to tell you that had done following a defective auxiliary (can, could; will, would; may, might; shall, should; must;

I have heard that the infinitive can exist without the 'to.' Is this correct? As others have told you, it is correct. More examples and explanations: A 1. Can you speak English? Do you speak English? 2. How dare you say so? (Also:

Hi. I'm a Japanese university student, working on my graduation thesis. I'm studying locative inversion with modal auxiliary verb, such as (1-3). (locative inversion consists of <locative phrase＋verb＋subject>,and its derivative

Matthew Huntbach (Email Removed): I introduced it, and I am from Sussex, not Yorkshire. "By then" indicating a point in time, followed by "would" and the present tense Grammatically, the part following the `would' (a modal

Also, if you count "will" as constituting a tense on ... As a separate tense of its own (the past future)? The use of will/shall to form the future tense is only one use of the word. It still remains a modal auxiliary, with a past tense.

Also, if you count "will" as constituting a tense on its own (the future), how do you characterize the past tense of "will" ("would")? As a separate tense of its own (the past future)? The use of will/shall to form