Do you have any particular sentences that make you confused? Maybe if you post them, it will be easier to explain. Generally, there are certain verbs that don't requite "to". Most modal verbs, for example. You should go there. However, You

"He walked as fast as the undergrowth and snowdrifts would allow " What is the justification for the conditional in the second half of the sentence? Tough question. In some ways, it is not really a conditional, but an expression of

Hi I just wondered if someone would be so kind as to just check my answers make sure I have understood correctly. Many thanks in advance. I have to read the following sentences and decide if they use one of the following 4:- the

I just want to point out the word "could" is indicative of the subjunctive mood Modal verbs don't have tenses and moods in the way that other verbs do. could certainly acts like a past subjunctive in If I could help you, I would.

So that - lest. (similarities and differencies)? What can go after so that? I have run into the following 1) modal verb 2) will (would) 3) main verb ++ 1) I am calling him so that he should (could) meet her 2) I am calling him so that he

Hi There, I am having trouble understanding Main verbs and Auxiliary verbs could someone please assist me. If there is a modal verb before the main verb would I class this as a main verb? I understand that the primary Auxiliary

May I know the gist of "the modal rule (do/did)" An infinitive without to goes after a modal verb: can do, would see, should know, may decide, ... Neither the modal nor the following verb is inflected. This rule does not include do ,

Why should we use 'would' ,'could' in the subjunctive mood and in the future tense? would and could , along with several other verbs, are called modal verbs. The modal verbs don't really have tenses, so you can't really use

Tell me if this is correct. Do isn't a modal verb but it can function as one. Therefore the verb after do is in its base form. Plus, did is the past tense of do so if I add -ed to happen, it would be redundant because did is already in the

Just adding a little to Clive's comment. Remember my earlier reply ? In which I said when you have anyone of the modals listed on my reply in a sentence or question, the verb immediately follows must remain in its bare form. This is the