Hi, Welcome to the forum. I am a student and was given an assingment that I am finding difficult to accomplish. My instructer told me to post my question and see if any of you could help me. I need two examples of a piece of language (e.g.,

MrPedantic wrote: What are we to make of the fact that adult native speakers often "self-prescriptivise"? Example: "Oh, hello, MrP. MissQ was just telling Randy and me – Randy and I – about L1 acquisition." MrP I read your

The case system for nouns and pronouns, grafted onto English despite the lack of any separate forms for nouns but the possessive, You can get rid of the "but the possessive". English has a clitic that attaches to the end of the noun

You can get rid of the "but the possessive". English ... the noun. The only possessive morphology is in the pronouns. The Queen's knickers and the Queen of England's knickers again, eh? Right. Or, more precisely, "the

The case system for nouns and pronouns, grafted onto English despite the lack of any separate forms for nouns but the possessive, You can get rid of the "but the possessive". English has a clitic that attaches to the end of the noun

The case system for nouns and pronouns, grafted onto English despite the lack of any separate forms for nouns but the possessive, You can get rid of the "but the possessive". Thank you kindly, sir. (separate point:) I almost said

The case system for nouns and pronouns, grafted onto English despite the lack of any separate forms for nouns but the possessive, You can get rid of the "but the possessive". English has a clitic that attaches to the end of the noun

If it were feasible, would you reform any aspect of the English language other than spelling? By 'feasible', I assume you mean 'possible for you to magically change in an instant the way all English speakers use their language'.