They had to have that specially made? The sentence is in the past tense. Since English lacks verbs for situations in which person A does something for person B on person B's request, a rather long and awkward structure is used instead: to have

I think everybody code-switches to some degree, as long as there is some sort of reason to do so in their society. It doesn't mean they use two dialects just as a bilingual uses two languages, because people often respond to dialect as if it

Sorry if this isn't the best place to join the thread, but, as Eccles memorably said in reply to "What are you doing here?", "Everybody's got to be somewhere". I'm not getting a sense from the discussion of why it

You mean he thinks the sentence or VP modifier "certainly" modifies "is"? You'll find the difference between verb-modifying adverbs (degree adverbs like "completely", "strictly") and VP- or S-modifying

If you're not sure, you shouldn't make such sweeping statements. It doesn't matter whether the words are bisyllabic or not ... your point here. Plus, there are many dialects of BrE: are you sure you can speak for all of them? No. Huh?

As the father of Case Grammar, he had to be a Case Grammarian. He didn't have to be, He's said that he didn't intend his work on case as an alternative to other syntactic theories. Yeah. I think it's fair to say that Fillmore