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1) How is it functioning below (I've asked this elsewhere and received no consistent answer)?
Having found me to be an alcoholic, she did not like me and so spurned my offer. But I would attempt to warm up to her . It functions as the
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
califjim
33 days ago
Verbs, Constructions, Tenses, Modals, Simple Past, Past Tenses, Modal Verbs, Sentences, Speaking, Chat, Friendships, Simple Tenses
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I f we could ask for your cooperation, would you all please remain seated until your row has been called.”
The first conditional uses the present tense in the if clause and will + infinitive in the result clause, whereas the second
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I know that 'dare' and 'need' is rather strange modal verbs. 1)I may say 'I need not do that', but may I say 'I need do that', without TO? 2) I know only phrase 'I dare say' without TO, but may I say 'I
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I think your confusion lies in the modal / helping word usage in relation to the verb form.
If you can remember this, it will help eliminate some of this kind of problem.
All verbs must stay in their base form immediately after a model or
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Please visit these sites for your particular question(s):
http://www.englisch-hilfen.de/en/grammar/conditional_special.htm
http://www.ego4u.com/en/cram-up/grammar/conditional-sentences
They should help you.
If you have some
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
dimsumexpress
96 days ago
Simple Present, Verbs, Tenses, Clauses, Present Tenses, Past Perfect, Modals, Simple Past, Past Tenses, Conditionals, Modal Verbs, Writing, Simple Tenses
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Good evening, Agatha, let's try to sort it out. According to authoritative sources, modal verbs have abnormal time reference , which means that not only the present forms, but the past forms of the modals can be used to refer to present and
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I just want to point out the word "could" is indicative of the subjunctive mood Modal verbs don't have tenses and moods in the way that other verbs do. could certainly acts like a past subjunctive in If I could help you, I would.
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Tell me if this is correct. Do isn't a modal verb but it can function as one. Therefore the verb after do is in its base form. Plus, did is the past tense of do so if I add -ed to happen, it would be redundant because did is already in the
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Please tell me if I have done it correctly?
I have to answer the following questions:
1. (i) What is the difference in meaning between the following sentences?
(ii) Identify the grammatical structure underlined in each sentence
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Hi Please; In this case you have a helping verb (did) to make the past tense of "have". "Have" does not change in 3rd person singular. I did have. You did have. He did have. We did have. They did have. The main verb (have)
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