Search results for 'tag:Past tenses tag:Negations' matching tags 'Past tenses' and 'Negations'

Re: I thought

CalifJim — Wed, 07 May 2008 18:12:17 GMT

New2grammar
What's the difference between "I thought I knew" and " I thought I know"?

I was told that the verb following "I thought" must be past tense.

Kooyeen has the answer:

you need to use the past tense after verbs like thought, didn't think, felt, knew, etc. Verbs like those seem to force a backshift in tense because they are more related to your "feelings" at a certain moment in the past than the "information" you had or got

Memorize:

I thought I knew / I thought I had to / I thought I was / I thought they were / I thought I could / I thought they would / ...

I knew I had to / I knew I was / I knew they were / I knew I could / I knew they would / I knew they wanted / ...

I felt I knew / I felt I had to / I felt I was / I felt they were / I felt I could / I felt he would / ...

I hoped I was / I hoped they were / I hoped I could / I hoped I didn't have to ...

I believed I knew / I believed I could / I believed they were / I believed I was / ...

I didn't think ... / I didn't know ... / ... / Did you know ...? / Did you feel ...? / ... (same for negations and questions)

Adding that doesn't change the basic principle here: I thought that I knew ...

_____________

And don't attempt to use present tense after thought, knew, felt, hoped, or believed -- and you'll be fine. You'll sound just like a native speaker.

But put a present tense there (I knew they are / I thought I am / I hoped I can / ...), and you'll expose yourself immediately as a non-native!!!

P.S. If you make a distinct pause in speech to indicate a direct quote, these principles do not apply:

I thought, "I know how to do that. Why are they saying I don't?"

I thought [ short pause ] I know how to ...

You absolutely cannot use the complementizer that in this case:

*I thought [ short pause ] that I know how to ... (NO!)

Re: Using ''need'' as a modal

CalifJim — Wed, 19 Sep 2007 06:24:46 GMT

Need sometimes behaves like a modal, for example 'She need know', 'She needn't know', or, in more formal English, 'She need not know'.

Palmer (The English Verb) says, "The modal forms [of need] are available only with ... negation and interrogation." So She need know is not possible. It has to be She needs to know.
He also says that "modal dare can be used with past time reference though it cannot have any past tense marking", that is, there is no modal form dared. His example is:

I wanted to go, but I daren't.

CJ

Re: Using ''need'' as a modal

Cool Breeze — Tue, 18 Sep 2007 13:06:55 GMT

Jackson6612 wrote:
Need sometimes behaves like a modal, for example 'She need know', 'She needn't know', or, in more formal English, 'She need not know'.

Examples:

1: You needn't worry

2: Buying budget-priced furniture needn't mean compromising on quality or style...

3: Loneliness can be horrible, but it need not remain that way...

4: You needn't come again, if you don't want to...

[an excerpt from Collins COBUILD Dictionary]

I would have written the above examples as:

1: You needn't to worry

2: Buying budget-priced furniture doesn't mean compromising on quality or style...

3: Loneliness can be horrible, but it need not to remain that way...

4: You needn't to come again, if you don't want to...

Questions:

1: I suppose ''to'' is functioning as a preposition in the above examples. Why can't a preposition be used after a modal?

Hi Jackson

You've got it wrong. To isn't a preposition in your sentences after need, it's a particle before an infinitive.

Examples of to as a preposition:

I am going to the park.
We are listening to him.

Examples of to as part of an infinitive:
I want to go there.
It's impossible to learn this.

The to-particle is normally not used after a modal auxiliary, or a defective auxiliary, as they are also called:
I will do it tomorrow.
Can he swim?
You should buy it.
You should have bought it.

If you use need or dare in the same way as the modals are used, they behave in exactly the same way as the modals:
1. You don't use do in questions and negations.
2. You don't use the third person singular s-inflection.
3. You don't use to before the infinitive.

Examples:
Can he come? Need he come? Dare he come?
1. NOT: Does he can come? (Wrong!!!)
2. NOT: Cans he come? Needs he come? Dares he come? (Wrong, wrong, wrong!!!)
3. NOT: Can he to come? Need he to come? (Wrong!!!)

You cannot use need in the past tense at all in the above way, but dare is sometimes possible in the past tense as well:
He dared not do it. (Or: He didn't dare to do it.)

Cheers
CB

Re: Proud

whl626 — Sat, 30 Jun 2007 01:21:28 GMT

CalifJim wrote:
this also at the same time tell people that you may not feel proud NOW living in Malaysia since you use past tense.
whl626,

A statement in the past tense does not imply the negation of the same statement in the present tense.

See Post:379670.

CJ

I know but comparing the simple present and simple past. The former is much better whereas the latter has to go with other sentences in the past. Otherwise, it does give a sense that what you felt in the past may not be consistent with what you feel at present.

Re: Proud

CalifJim — Fri, 29 Jun 2007 18:19:03 GMT

this also at the same time tell people that you may not feel proud NOW living in Malaysia since you use past tense.

whl626,

A statement in the past tense does not imply the negation of the same statement in the present tense.

See Post:379670.

CJ

Re: "Carol was one of my sister's best friend." Still friends?

CalifJim — Fri, 15 Jun 2007 19:30:58 GMT

That was my sister's best friend, Carol.

As used in your little dialog, this is a perfect example that saying was does not necessarily mean no longer is -- or, in more general terms, that the use of the past tense does not imply the negation of the present tense.

CJ

Re: regarding question of general's form of negation?pls tell me

Flying Pig — Tue, 02 Aug 2005 16:50:46 GMT

i am confused in whether add "to" or not

sometimes,we say : go to bed,go to cinema,go to party,go to school......there are more expression as it,why donot add "to"in that sentence when we say "go there"?tell me the reason pls?

other question?it is a past tense in this sentence,also,it is a question,we put auxil.v. "did" in the head of sentence,why do we use the verb.of original shape in back but to keep the consistent as head?

help me,thank you.

Re: What does "ill-kempt" mean?

Pemmican — Tue, 15 Mar 2005 22:42:00 GMT

"kempt" is an old past tense and past participle form of the verb "to comb".

The noun 'comb' has originally been "kamb", a verb "kambjan" has been derived. The "j" caused Umlaut a--->e, the Old English form of the verb became 'kemban', pt and pp: 'kempt'.

Later on 'kemban' was replaced by the regular form "to comb" (simply derived from the new noun "comb"), but the old past participle 'kempt' survived especially in its negation "unkempt".
(----> Look up "unkempt" in your dictionary.)

Hope, I could help!
Cheers
-Pemmican