This is a common confusion even among natives. This link may help clear some of the confusion. http://www.englishrules.com/writing/2005/hanged-or-hung.php Pictures can be hung, but people are always hanged. It's an odd quirk of the

Yes. It's the past tense and the past participle of pet . Many people use "pet" as a substitute, however, because of the sound. As far as I know ( American Heritage Dictionary included), the only proper form is petted .

You have used double past tenses, and I really would recommend that you do not use short forms because the tenses go haywire .. I did not got time is wrong because the words "did not" is always followed by the present tense..i.e.I did

I wrote by myself, so it might have a lot of grammar mistakes...I really need your help,any proffesor check my grammar, sentence,pls. I could tell that my friend was excited by the looks of her face. Natalie was going in for the talent

Hi, Is below sentence right? Afghansitan people have defeated Alexander the Great,Mongol, United Kingdom, and Union Soviet and they might defeat United States.

No there is no rule.The two words have the same meaning, 'whilst' is the older version (some dictionaries list it as obsolete) and it usually appears only in formal or poetic writing. If you stick to 'while' you won't ever

I'm Australian, and it's always 'tanned' here. But I would contend that is what it's intended to be in American English, too. I always used to read/hear 'tanned' in American media and books, and it's only in recent

From grammarErrors.com: drug/dragged Drug is often used as the past tense of drag, as in the following example: Example: I drug myself out of bed this morning. The past tense of drag is actually dragged , not drug . This error is

Short answer: Yes, but i'm not as likely to use it that way. Opti is the faster typist - he posted 2 minutes before I did! Maybe he'll give his opinion too, but if someone said "I've been sick" (remember in the

it is an action verb, which justifies the use of have in simple past as a substitution of present perfective in American English Please explain why this might be so. I see no relationship between the two uses. The sentence under consideration