Re: Are or is?

Buddhaheart — Sat, 27 Jan 2007 06:46:08 GMT

According to Answers.com, although "none" is etymologically derived from OE "one", it has been used as both a singular and a plural word from that time on as evident in the Bible, works of J. Dryden & E. Burke and many present day well known authors. Today "None" is considered to be shortened form of "not one; no one & not any" as any lexicons will tell you.

Depending on the context, it can take a singular or plural verb. This seems to be the view of most people. I wonât go too far to say thereâs only one correct form, i.e. the singular!

Examine the example "There is none left." If the context is I need another red pencil but not one is available, the singular verb makes sense. In "None of us are grammarians", the plural verb makes sense as "none of us" here means "not any of us". The plural sense (all of us) is implied. In Anonymous question, the plural form "are" is acceptable (IMO).

The indefinite pronoun is actually used as a plural subject more often than not. To the purist & strict theorist, this sounds odd and unsettling. Well, the English language, like any other isnâât really an exact science.

To add confusion, hereâre some more lexicon & grammar text examples:

"None have (has) arrived yet.ââ
"There is none of it left."
"None of the apples are rotten."

"None of my children has/have blonde hair."

"None of his poems are well known."

""None but fools have ever believed it."

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Re: Are or is?