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it is an action verb, which justifies the use of have in simple past as a substitution of present perfective in American English Please explain why this might be so. I see no relationship between the two uses. The sentence under consideration
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
mister micawber
75 days ago
American English, Present Tenses, Simple Past, Present Perfect, Past Tenses, Relationships, Sentences, Countries, United States, United Kingdom, Great Britain, American, Simple Tenses, Languages
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Please, can you check my post about something similar to this problem? It's a conditional with the "would" + present perfect in the IF-clause, where we are to use past perfect.
I commented at the other thread:
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
mr wordy
113 days ago
American English, Present Tenses, Past Perfect, Present Perfect, Past Tenses, Conditionals, Countries, United States, United Kingdom, Great Britain, American, Languages
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Fewer students have played truant since the new system was implemented. It's common construction with using Present Perfect in one clause and Past Simple in since-clause. It has been ages since I saw him. __ In sentence with since we
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
fandorin
173 days ago
American English, Constructions, Tenses, Clauses, Present Tenses, Past Perfect, Present Perfect, Past Tenses, Past Simple, Sentences, Countries, Great Britain, Students, American, Languages
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Both the past tense and the present perfect are usually correct with never, ever and always . There's normally no difference in meaning. American English tends to use the past tense while the perfect is perhaps more common in the British
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
cool breeze
235 days ago
American English, Tenses, Present Tenses, Present Perfect, Past Tenses, Countries, United States, United Kingdom, Great Britain, American, Languages
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Hi Rozarria The expression "to have got" is idiomatic, and is used to mean the same thing as "to have" (meaning "to possess"). Click here and look at definition 63. Since I presume the intended meaning in your
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
yankee
310 days ago
American English, Present Tenses, British English, Expressions, Present Perfect, Sentences, Countries, United States, United Kingdom, Great Britain, American, Languages
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There is also a difference here between British and American usage. In American English there might be very little difference; I think you would hear both with approximately the same meaning. In British English, there is a difference, however:
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
ratiatum
339 days ago
American English, British English, Simple Past, Present Perfect, Past Tenses, Countries, United States, United Kingdom, Great Britain, Usages, American, Languages
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1. Only (D) is possible: His grandpa has been dead for ten years. (A) is impossible because we cannot use present perfect with a specific time reference. (B) is gramatically possible but makes no sense unless after 10 years the grandfather was
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
ratiatum
350 days ago
American English, Present Tenses, Past Perfect, British English, Present Perfect, Present Simple, Passive Sentences, Relationships, Sentences, References, Business, Career, United States, Great Britain, American
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I agree with all the responses to your question. I think the answer, in this specific case, should be simple past, for the reasons others have stated. But you introduced another related issue as an example, and that is: I have eaten. I just ate.
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My question is why "have you heard" and "last night"? Can I use the present perfect and say: last night, yesterday, two days ago, as far as I know when I use them, then I should use the past simple tense instead of the present
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When do you guys use the present perfect! (americans!)?
I had asked a similar question before and I got many diffrent answers! One was like: So, we can say that generally we use the present perfect to talk about experiences, changes over time,
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